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3 years ago

The causes of frictional unemployment include:

Business

1 answer:

RideAnS [48]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The answer to your question is B - Changes of economic structure.

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A package of Supreme Security Software compares the software’s features against its competitors’ features. The result is a matri

Sophie [7]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Suppose you currently earn $30,000 a year. you are considering a job that will increase your lifetime earnings by $300,000 but t

Jet001 [13]

25,000 + 80,000 = 105.0000

6 0

3 years ago

Hill Manufacturing uses departmental cost driver rates to apply manufacturing overhead costs to products. Manufacturing overhead

Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

a. Manufacturing overhead allocation rate for each department.

Machining Department

Overhead allocation rate = $2.50

Assembly Department

Overhead allocation rate = $4.00

b. total cost of Job #846 is $6,505

Explanation:

a. Manufacturing overhead allocation rate for each department.

Machining Department

Overhead allocation rate = Overhead / Machine hours

= $250,000/ 100,000

= $2.50

Assembly Department

Overhead allocation rate = Overhead / direct labor-hours

= $360,000/ 90,000

= $4.00

b. total cost of Job #846

Direct material cost :

Machining $2,700

Assembly $1,600

Direct labor cost :

Machining $ 400

Assembly $ 900

Overhead Costs :

Machining ( $2.50 × 170) $ 425

Assembly ( $4.00 × 120) $ 480

Total Cost $6,505

5 0

3 years ago

Manning Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. At the end of the year (before adjust

Lynna [10]

Answer:

c) $22,000

Explanation:

Find the attachment below

3 0

3 years ago

Great Lakes Packing has two bond issues outstanding. The first issue has a coupon rate of 3.54 percent, a par value of $1,000 pe

grandymaker [24]

Answer:

3.20%

Explanation:

The firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt can be determined by first of all determining the before-tax cost of each debt.

Using a financial calculator, the before-tax costs of debt are ascertained as follows:

Bond 1:

N=8(number of semiannual coupons in 4 years)

PMT=17.70 (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*3.54%/2=$17.70)

PV=-1030(current price=$1000*103%=$1030)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=1.37%(the semannual yield, annual yield=1.37%*2=2.74%)

after-tax cost of first debt=2.74%*(1-39%)=1.67%

Bond 2:

N=46(number of semiannual coupons in 23 years)

PMT=30.50 (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*6.10%/2=$30.50)

PV=-950(current price=$1000*95%=$950)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=3.26%%(the semannual yield, annual yield=3.26%%*2=6.52%)

after-tax cost of second debt=6.52%*(1-39%)=3.98%

market value of first debt=$3.8 million*103%=$3,914,000

market value of second debt=$8.1 million*95%=$7,695,000

total market value of debts=$3,914,000+$7,695,000=$11,609,000

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=(1.67%*$3,914,000/$11,609,000)+(3.98%*$7,695,000/$11,609,000)

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=3.20%

5 0

3 years ago