Replaced how? If you mean like the Roman empire, that would be incorrect. Both empires considered each other Roman and both empires considered themselves Roman. So when the west fell, the Byzantines did not 'replace' the western Romans in being Roman. Instead, they just kept on being Roman as their western counterparts fell. However, for a period, the Byzantines did manage to reconquer parts of the Western Empire and even Rome, but that was relatively short-lived. In that case, you could argue that the Byzantines sort of did replace the western Romans in being the Roman empire with Rome in its possession. However, that is a stretch in my opinion.
In short: False, the Eastern Romans did not replace the western Romans as they were both seen as Romans, just with different governments.
Answer:
They ended up colonizing North America for different economic reasons. Spain colonized America because they were searching for gold and silver. They did find a lot of gold and silver when they conquered the Aztec and Inca Empires. France colonized North America because of the great amount of furs they found there.
Explanation:
The Reformation began in Germany in 1517 because an Augustinian monk named Martin Luther, who lived in Germany, wrote "95 Theses" protesting the Pope's selling indulgences. ... Because Luther was very outspoken about his feelings, the Reformation started in Germany and spread.
The answer here is A as they both tried to excommunicate each other while in fact neither of them knew what was going to happen.
Hope this helps!
