Answer:None of the above= 10% and 33.33%
Explanation:
Coverage ratio EBIT/Interest expenses
Change in numerator =3/30*100
Change in denominator= 2/6*100
The correct option is (a) sales; average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio is computed as sales divided by average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio demonstrates the effectiveness of a company's current fixed assets in driving sales. A greater ratio suggests that management is making better use of its fixed assets. No information can be gleaned from a high FAT ratio about a company's capacity to produce reliable earnings or cash flows.
The ratio of sales to the value of fixed assets is known as fixed-asset turnover. It shows how effectively the company is generating sales by utilizing its fixed assets.
A greater ratio is typically preferred since it suggests that the business is effective at producing sales or revenues from its asset base. A lower ratio suggests that a business is not utilizing its resources effectively and may be experiencing internal issues.
Learn more about fixed asset turnover ratio
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Answer:
$3,750
Explanation:
Cost of patent $45,000
Useful Life 12
Amortization Expense for 2nd year =$3,750 (45,000/12)
Amortization Expense-Patent Dr.$3,750
Accumulated Amortization-Patent Cr.$3,750
Answer:
$-148,867.17
Explanation:
Present value of inflows=cash inflow*Present value of discounting factor(rate%,time period)
=42000/1.15+44000/1.15^2+45000/1.15^3+50000/1.15^4+650,000/1.15^5
=$451132.83
NPV=Present value of inflows-Present value of outflows
=$451132.83-$600,000
=($148867.17)(Approx)(Negative figure)
Hence since NPV is negative;investment must not be made.
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