Tax multiplier amount = -9.00.Real GDP changed or increased by $9 billion. Less than $1 billion in spending would be required by the government. The explanation is that the tax multiplier's absolute value is bigger than the expenditure multiplier's absolute value, which is 10.
MPC = 1 - 0.90 = 0.10 MPS = Marginal Propensity to Save = 1 MPC = 1 - 0.90 = 0.10
As a result, we have:
The tax multiplier is equal to MPC / MPS, which is 0.90 / 0.10, or -9.00.Reduced tax X=-$1 billion
Tax multiplier equals -9.00.
Amount of change or growth in real GDP equals a decrease in taxes, multiplied by a -$1 tax multiplier.Multiplier for expenses = 1/ MPS = 1/ 0.10 = 10Real GDP growth is equal to the change in government spending multiplied by the expenditure multiplier (1). Solve for by substituting the appropriate values into equation (1). Government spending has changed.We possess.Change in government spending of $9 billion $9 billion / 10 = $0.90 billion in changes to government spending in one year.Given that the expenditure multiplier produced a change in government spending of $0.90 billion, this suggests that less than $1 billion in expenditures would be required.
To know more about Multiplier effect visit:
brainly.com/question/20565639
#SPJ4
Answer:B. overhead applied to the job
Explanation:Applied overhead is the amount of overhead that has been applied to a cost object, in a well performing large business, an applied overhead of 35% of total revenue is considered to be favourable.
The major reason which causes Organisations to make use of a predetermined overhead rate is to assign manufacturing overhead costs to jobs based on certain Regular activities, these activities are; direct labor work hours, machine run time( in hours), or direct labor costs etc.
Answer:
D : report form
Explanation:
A report format balance sheet lists account totals in vertical format where the assets are listed first at the top then liabilities, then shareholders' equity. All the account totals are listed on the right side of the report ; in simple terms, it vertically aligns the asset, liability, and equity accounts with the descriptions on the left and the account totals on the right. It also is easier to read than the account format balance sheet.
Answer:
$19
Explanation:
The computation of the financial advantage or disadvantage is shown below:
= Sale value after processed further - cost of processed further - sale value without processed further
= $91 - $29 - $43
= $19
Simply we deducted the cost of processed further and the sale value without processed further from the Sale value after processed further so that the correct amount can come
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
