Answer:
Option D All of the above statements are correct.
Explanation:
The solution of the issue is software integration and making flow of information on timely basis across the company. The recommended solutions given in the question are correct because:
- Establishing a lockbox arrangement is similar to having a single company bank account. This means that the company will have a confirmation from the bank that the payment is received by the bank from customers.
- The remittance advice sent with payment helps to solve the misunderstanding, assist in recording transaction to keep the system updated and provides resistance to fraudulent practice.
- The mailroom personnel who require mailing of trade receivable balance which the customers owe to company and trade payable balance which the company owes to suppliers. This avoids the company paying illegitimate amounts and receiving the amounts which the customers actually should pay to the company.
So all of the statements are correct.
Answer:
Option D is the correct option
Explanation:
To find the optimal fund to combine with risk free rate of return, we will use Coefficient of variation,
Coefficient of variation(CoV) = Standard Deviation/Expected Return
CoV of Buckeye = 14%/20% = 0.7
CoV of Wolverine = 11%/12% = 0.9167
So, higher the CoV higher the risk, we will take Buckeye to combine with Risk Free Return.
Hence, Option A
- Required target return of portfolio = 22%
Risk Free return = 8%
Buckeye Return = 20%
Let the weight of Buckeye be X ,& weight of risk free be (1-X)
Required return = (WRF)*(RRF) + (WB)*(RB)
22 = (1-X)(8) + (X)(20)
22 = 8-8X + 20X
14 = 12X
X = 1.17
SO, weight of Buckeye is 1.17 or 117%
while weight of Risk free is -0.17 (1-1.17) or -17%
Hence, ans is OPTION D
Answer:
A. $1,517,648 thousand
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of goods sold using the FIFO method is shown below:
= Cost of goods sold under LIFO - (Ending LIFO reserves - Beginning LIFO reserves)
= $1,517,397 - ($4,345 - $4,094)
= $1,517,648
We simply applied the above formula so that the cost of goods sold using the FIFO method could come
All other information i.e given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
Work in process = $72,220
Factory Overhead = $1,098
Explanation:
DATA
No. Material Job No. Amount
945 Fiberglass 78 $20,240
946 Plastic 93 $9,890
947 Glue Indirect $1,098
948 Wood 99 $3,622
949 Aluminium 108 $38,468
Required: Amount of materials transferred to Work in Process and Factory Overhead?
Solution
Work in process = sum of all direct material cost
Work in process = $20,240 + $9.890 + $3,622 + $38,468 = $72,220
Factory Overhead = sum of all indirect material cost
Factory Overhead = $1,098
Answer:
Becky
Explanation:
A person has absolute advantage in the production of a good if she produces more quantities of the good compared to the other person.
Susan produces 4 pizzas in an hour while Becky produces 5 pizzas in an hour. So, Becky has an absolute advantage in the production of pizzas.
I hope my answer helps you
