Answer:
The manufactured overhead was under-estimated.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The actual manufacturing overhead costs incurred were $515,000.
Estimated Manufacturing overhead was $500,000.
Overhead allocation is the distribution of indirect costs to produced goods. When the administration has undervalued and under-funded the amount of money needed for non-production costs, they have under-allocated overhead.
<u>Over applied manufacturing overhead:</u>
<u></u>
Applied overhead>Actual overhead
<u>Under applied manufacturing overhead:</u>
Applied overhead<Actual overhead
In this exercise:
Actual manufacturing overhead - Estimated Manufacturing overhead= 515000- 500000= 15000
The manufactured overhead was under-estimated.
The answer is FALSE because a conversion happens when a visitor to the page does whatever the marketer hoped he or she would do. The objective of the marketer will repeatedly be to get visitors to like the page in which case the question correctly defines how to calculate the conversion rate. In other cases, the goal might be for visitors to print a coupon and take it to the store, to book a plane booking or to post a comment or photo. In general, Conversion rates are a measure that specified what percentage of potential customers act as the marketer hopes, and by clicking, buying or donating.
Answer: The answer is: Debit Salary and wages expense $9,900, Debit Salaries and wages payable $37,900, Credit Cash $47,800
Explanation: Since the company has $37,900 sitting in salaries and wages payable account at the end of the month and the payroll revealed that actual amount to be paid is $47,800, this means the company has a shortfall of $9,900 from the salaries and wages payable account. Therefore, this amount that was not accrued for would impact salary and wages expense by $9,900.
Answer:
D : All options are correct
Explanation:
- The marginal buyer is the essence of demand curve while marginal seller is essence of supply curve.
- @ Q = 500 units, Selling Price is set at SP = $35
- @ Q = 500 units, Buying Price is set at BP = $40
- Since, SP ≠ BP our equilibrium price would be $ 37.5 assuming the price elasticity of demand and supply are equal. In any case the equilibrium price would lie in between [ 35 , 40 ] such that to prevent a shortage of units in near future.
- Moreover, if the seller decides to sell at price $35 then he must sell goods greater than 500 units to reach the equilibrium profits. However, it could also lead to excess of units or surplus.
- We see that from selling the goods at SP = $35 while the buyer is willing to pay BP = $40 for 500 goods, the seller would be under-profiting and would be earning $5*500 = $2,500 less than he would at equilibrium price of $40 and selling units greater than 500. Hence, 500 goods is not an efficient quantity of goods.
Answer:
$1,482 unfavorable
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the variable overhead flexible-budget variance
Using this formula
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=Variable overhead spending variance Unfavorable + Variable overhead efficiency variance Unfavorable
Let plug in the formula
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=$1,300 (U) + $182 (U)
Variable overhead flexible-budget variance= $1,482 (U)
Therefore the variable overhead flexible-budget variance is $1,482 unfavorable
