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zalisa [80]
3 years ago
7

JWS Transport Company’s employees earn vacation time at the rate of 1 hour per 40-hour work period. The vacation pay vests immed

iately (that is, an employee is entitled to the pay even if employment terminates). During 2016, total wages paid to employees equaled $404,000, including $4,000 for vacations actually taken in 2016 but not including vacations related to 2016 that will be taken in 2017. All vacations earned before 2016 were taken before January 1, 2016. No accrual entries have been made for the vacations. No overtime premium and no bonuses were paid during the period. Required: Prepare the appropriate adjusting entry for vacations earned but not taken in 2016. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
Business
1 answer:
Anna11 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$6,000

Explanation:

1 hour per 40 hour period= 1/40=.025

Total Wages paid less vacation wages paid ($404,000-$4000)

$400,000 is The payable amount of wages if no holiday was taken.

$400,000 X.025=$10000=(The workers gross holiday compensation)

$10,000-$4,000=$6,000

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2 years ago
tangshan China's stock is currently selling for $160.00 per share and the firm's dividends are expected to grow at 5 percent ind
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7 0
3 years ago
In a limited partnership, limited partners do not have the same rights as general partners to participate in management. Group o
dimaraw [331]

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<h3>What is a limited partnership?</h3>

A limited partnership is a type of partnership that is made up of general partners and limited partners. The liability of limited partners is limited to the amount invested in the business while the general partners have unlimited liabilities.

The limited partner cannot partake in the daily running of the business unlike the general partner.

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5 0
1 year ago
Interest rate​ (with changing​ years). Keiko is looking at the following investment choices and wants to know what annual rate o
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

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7.01%

9.17%

Explanation:

Rate of return = (future value / amount invested)^(1/n) - 1

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