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Svet_ta [14]
3 years ago
9

Solve this Inequality 1 > -1 - w

Mathematics
1 answer:
Rom4ik [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

\displaystyle -2 < w

Step-by-step explanation:

1 > −1 - w

+ 1 + 1

________

\displaystyle \frac{2}{-1} > \frac{-w}{-1} \\ \\ -2 < w

Whenever you divide\multiply by a <em>negative</em>, you reverse the inequality symbol.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

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I’m having a hard time with this. Is this a typo by the teacher or should I actually be looking for a size?
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Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 games in the population.  You need to use a random number generator to choose 2 of these games.

RandomSample[{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12},2]

Let's say the first sample you get is {1,5}.  That corresponds to game times of 8 minutes and 7 minutes.  The mean game time for that sample is 7.5 minutes.  So the first row in your table would be:

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Sample&List\ of\ Game\ Times&Mean\ Game\ Time\\1&8,7&7.5\end{array}\right]

5 0
3 years ago
A greenhouse manager knows, from experience, that the probability of a plant surviving the winter is 3/5 . If her greenhouse has
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162 plants, if 60% of the plants live you can set it up like this: 60/100 = X/270, to find X, you cross multiply and divide by 100
6 0
3 years ago
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For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

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The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

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And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

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8 0
3 years ago
Help Please.
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Step-by-step explanation:

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