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dsp73
3 years ago
15

The market for plywood is characterized by the following demand and supply equations: QD = 800 – 10P and QS = 50P – 1,000, where

P is the price per sheet of plywood and Q measures the quantity of plywood. What is the size of the deadweight loss if the government imposes a price ceiling of $25 per she
Business
1 answer:
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$3,750

Explanation:

at $25 per sheet of plywood:

total demand = 800 - (10 x 25) = 800 - 250 = 550

total supply = (50 x 25) - 1,000 = 1,250 - 1,000 = 250

the equilibrium price is:

800 - 10P₁ = 50P₁ - 1,000

1,800 = 60P₁

P₁ = 1,800 / 60 = 30

the equilibrium quantity (Q₁) is:

Q₁ = 800 - (10 x 30) = 800 - 300 = 500

at 250 units, the price should be:

250 = 800 - 10P₂

10P₂ = 550

P₂ = $55

total deadweight loss = 0.5 x  (P₂ - P₁)  x (Q₂ - Q₁) = 0.5 x  ($55 - $25)  x (250 - 500) = 0.5 x $30 x -250 = -$3,750

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Beginning three months from now, you want to be able to withdraw $2,800 each quarter from your bank account to cover college exp
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

You will need to have $ 55,006.94

Explanation:

We need first to consider the following details according to the problem

We have a Annuity amount of $ 2900, a Rate(r)= 0.51%, and a Time(n)= 5 years (or 20 quarters ) .

To reach to the money that we would need to have in the bank today to meet the expense over the next four years we use the following formula:

PVA= annuity amount × [1 - (1 / (1 + r)n)] / r

PVA= $ 2900 x[ 1-{ 1/(1+0.0051)20)]/0.0051

PVA= $ 55,006.94

4 0
3 years ago
Autoliv produces air bag systems that it sells to automobile manufacturers throughout the world. Assume the company has a capaci
gogolik [260]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

a. The variable cost per unit will be:

= (3,825,000 - 3,680,000) / (45million - 40 million)

= 0.029

Then, the financial order of accepting the order will be:

Contribution margin = Unit selling price - Unit

= 65 - 29

= 36

Since the size of the order is 100,000, the financial impact of accepting the order will be:

= 36 × 100,000

= 3,600,000

b. The differential analysis will be:

Contribution from special order = 3,600,000

Opportunity cost {100,000 = 120,000,000 - 29,000,000 = 9,100,000

Net disadvantage of accepting order will then be:

= 3600000 - 9100000

= 5,500,000

5 0
3 years ago
An investor purchased 100 shares of stock X at \small 6\frac{1}{8} dollars per share and sold them all a year later at 24 dollar
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

option (C) 280%

Explanation:

Number of shares of stock X purchased = 100

Purchasing cost of share = \$6\frac{1}{8} =\frac{49}{8}

Selling cost of stocks = $24 per share

Brokerage paid = 2%

Now,

The total purchasing cost involved = 100\times\frac{49}{8} + 2% of 100\times\frac{49}{8}

= 612.5 + 0.02 × 612.5

= $624.75

also,

Total income from sales of stocks

= Total selling cost of shares - brokerage paid

= $24 × 100 - 2% of Total selling cost

= $2400 - ( 0.02 × $2400 )

= $2400 - $48

= $2,352

now,

The investor's percent gain on this investment = \frac{\textup{Income-invested amount}}{\textup{Invested amount}}\times100\%

= \frac{\textup{2,352 - 624.75}}{\textup{624.75}}\times100\%

= \frac{\textup{1727.25}}{\textup{624.75}}\times100\%

= 276.47% ≈ 280%

Hence, the correct answer is option (C) 280%

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, Sway Corporation had 60,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding. On March 17, the company declared a
pychu [463]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

With regards to the above, the entry to record of March 30 would be;

Debit stock dividends $140,400

Credit common stock dividends distributable $108,000

Credit paid in capital in excess of par $32,400

Calculations;

= 60,000 shares of $10 par value

= $600,000 × Stock dividend

= $600,000 × 18%

= $108,000

Stock dividend = 60,000 shares of $13 market value

= $780,000 × Stock dividend

= $780,000 × 18%

= $140,400

Additional paid in capital = $140,400 - $108,000 = $32,400

5 0
3 years ago
An investment project has annual cash inflows of $4,300, $4,000, $5,200, and $4,400, for the next four years, respectively. The
xeze [42]

Answer:

1.64 years

2.27 years

3.13 years

Explanation:

Discounted payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative discounted cash flows

Present value of cash flow in year 1 = 4300 / 1.13 = 3805.31

Amount recovered in year 1  = -5800 + 3805.31 = -1994.69

Present value of cash flow in year 2 = 4000 / (1.13^2) = 3132.59

Amount recovered in year 2 =-1994.69 + 3132.59 = 1137.90

Payback period = 1 + 1994.69/3132.59 = 1.64 years

B

Present value of cash flow in year 1 = 4300 / 1.13 = 3805.31

Amount recovered in year 1  = -7900 + 3805.31 = -4094.69

Present value of cash flow in year 2 = 4000 / (1.13^2) = 3132.59

Amount recovered in year 2  = -4094.69 + 3132.59 = -962.10

Present value of cash flow in year 3 = 5200 / (1.13^3) = 3603.86

Amount recovered in year 3  = -962.10 + 3603.86 = 2641.76

Payback period = 2 years + -962.10 / 3603.86 = 2.27 years

C

Present value of cash flow in year 1 = 4300 / 1.13 = 3805.31

Amount recovered in year 1  = -10900 + 3805.31 = -7094.69

Present value of cash flow in year 2 = 4000 / (1.13^2) = 3132.59

Amount recovered in year 2  = -7094.69 + 3132.59 = -3962.10

Present value of cash flow in year 3 = 5200 / (1.13^3) = 3603.86

Amount recovered in year 3  = -3962.10 + 3603.86 = -358.24

Present value in year 4 =  4400 / (1.13^4) = 2698.60

Amount recovered in year 4  = -358.24 + 2698.60 = 2340.36

Payback period = 3 years + 358.24 + 2698.60 = 3.13 years

7 0
2 years ago
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