Answer:
55,000 Credit balance
Explanation:
Mango Company
Predetermined overhead rate /Estimated overhead cost
= $600,000 / $300,000
Estimated direct labor cost = 200%
Applied overhead :
=Actual direct labor cost of $335,000 × 200%
= $670,000
Overhead incurred-Overhead applied
$615000 – $670,000
=$55,000
Therefore At year-end, the balance in the Factory Overhead account is a: credit of $55,000
λ=3
, mu = 5
<u>Explanation</u>:
λ=3
mu = 5
states
0 - no customers
1- 1 customre
2 - 2 customers
Set up Equations
Rate of entry = Rate of exit
5P1 =3P0
5P2 + 3P0 = 5P1 + 3P1
3P1 = 5P2
P0 + P1 + P2 = 1
solve the above
1a) = 0 into P0 plus 1 into P1 plus 2 into P2
b) λ ( 1 minus P2) by λ = 1 - P2
c) change the paramater mu = 5 into 2 and solve a) again
Are you referring to this question, with the same choices too?
When Procter & Gamble bought the Old Spice brand in 1990, it planned to transform the old, stagnating brand into a men's "personal-care powerhouse." The ads that P&G developed shed the older-man image and the message is now targeted at the 18 to 34 year old age group. In terms of the communication process, the _________ would encode the message
A. communication channel
B. receiver
C. decoder
D. source
<span>E. field of experience
</span>
If so, then the answer is letter D. source.
Answer:
b.The IRR is equal to 25.85%
Explanation:
Firstly we are given that i consider investing $100000 which will in this problem be our Cinitial which is the initial investment for the project.
Then now given the risk of this project, my cost of capital is 20% so then we will compare this to the IRR and see if i can accept the project or not if the cost of capital is greater than the IRR than its not good to invest on the project but if the cost of capital is less than the IRR then the this will be a good investment as the cost of capital also checks the opportunity cost.
The future payment cash flows which is $500000 so we will use the following formula:
NPV = (cash flow)/(1+IRR)^n - initial investment
so we find the present value of the cash flow of the investment and subract the initial investment which will give us a zero cause the present value of the cash flow is equal to the initial investment therefore( n is the period of cash flows):
0= $500000/(1+IRR)^7 - $100000 transpose the initial investment and solve for IRR.
$100000(1+IRR)^7= $500000 then divide both sides by $100000
(1+IRR)^7 = 5 then find the 7nth root of both sides to eliminate the exponent of 7
1+ IRR = ![\sqrt[7]{5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%5B7%5D%7B5%7D)
1+IRR = 1.258498951 then subtract 1 both sides to solve for IRR
IRR = 0.258498... then multiply by 100 as IRR is a percentage
IRR= 25.85 % rounded off to two decimal places which is the answer b