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kkurt [141]
3 years ago
9

Suppose there is a product that is being sold in a perfectly competitive market. If the market price of the product falls​, prod

ucer surplus will ▼ decrease increase since this change results in a lower ​price, which means there is ▼ less more area between the supply curve and the market price for the good.
Business
1 answer:
yuradex [85]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Decrease; Less

Explanation:

The producer surplus is the difference between the minimum price that a producer is willing to accept for a product and the price he actually receives.  

When the market price of a product falls, the producer surplus will decrease as well.  

The lower market price implies that there will be less area between the supply curve and the market price of the product.

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Chang Industries has 2,000 defective units of product that have already cost $14 each to produce. A salvage company will purchas
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

$20,000 income

Explanation:

<em>Computation</em>

Particulars                                                                 Amount

Sale Value of corrected product=                         $42,000.00

(2,000 * 21)

Less : Costs of Correction =                                   ($12,000.00)

(2000 * 6)

Less : Opportunity costs - Salvage Value Lost =  <u>($10,000.00)</u>

(2,000 * 5)

Incremental Revenue=                                             <u>$20,000.00</u>

4 0
3 years ago
A large firm in the automotive aftermarket business wants to improve its current situation, which is characterized by excess inv
oksano4ka [1.4K]
<span>Yes,Supply chain management will be helpfull to automotive aftermarket business in this scenario.Supply chain management is designed to coordinate and integrate all the activities from raw materials to product consumption.Supply chain management is the active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage</span>
6 0
3 years ago
What's the future value of an investment of $1 a year for each of 4 years, at the end of the last year? Suppose the interest rat
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

4.51

Explanation:

We have to calculate fva. The future value of annuity

Here is the formula

Fva = A [( + I)^n-1/I]

Where a = annuity

I = interest rate

N = number of years

Inserting into formula

1[(1+0.08)^4 - 1/0.08]

= 1[(1.36049 - 1)/0.08]

= 4.51

Therefore the future investment is $4.51

3 0
3 years ago
Cullumber Company uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense. Accounts receivable (ending balance) $605
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

a. Journal entry

b. $18,150

c. $586,850

Explanation:

a. The adjusting journal entry is as follows

Bad debt expense A/c Dr

  To Allowance for doubtful debts

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)\

The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:

= Account receivable × estimated percentage given  + debit balance of allowance for uncollectible accounts

= $605,000 × 3% + $4,700

= $18,150 + $4,700

= $22,850

b. The adjusted balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $18,150

c. The cash realizable value is

= $605,0000 - $18,150

= $586,850

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