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3 years ago

Which of the following is an example of a shortage?

Business

1 answer:

Lemur [1.5K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Consumers cannot find enough of a popular new toy in stores.

Explanation:

If there is a shortage, there is not enough supply for the demand.

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Alex is an avid ornithologist and bird-watcher. He received a tweet from a colleague that the "pink-tufted warbler," a rare and

valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

Fraud

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

during 2017, trey corporation accrued warranty expense based on 3.5% of net sales revenue. during 2018, trey corporation revised

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

For the year ended December 31, 2018, the warranty-related entry would include a debit to warranty expense of $80,000.

If it's miles impracticable to determine the cumulative impact of applying a trade-in accounting principle, then the new accounting principle should be applied prospectively as of the earliest date practicable. in this situation, the disclosures discussed in FSP 30.4.

Cumulative effect equals the difference between the actual retained profits suggested at the beginning of the yr using the antique approach and the retained income that would have been reported at the start of the year if the brand-new technique had been utilized in earlier years.

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8 0

1 year ago

In a Cournot market with two firms, the inverse market demand curve is P = 20 – 0.5Q, where Q = q1 + q2. (Firm 1's output = q1;

Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

MR = 10 – 1q1.

Explanation:

Demand function, P = 20 – 0.5Q

Q = q1 + q2

Now insert Q in the P = 20 – 0.5Q.

P = 20 – 0.5 (q1 + q2)

We have the value of q2 = 20.

P = 20 – 0.5 (q1 + q2)

P = 20 – 0.5 (q1 + 20)

P = 20 – 0.5q1 – 10

P = 10 – 0.5q1

Total revenue of firm 1, TR = Pq1

TR = 10q1 – (0.5q1)^2

Now MR is the differentiation of TR. So the MR after differentiation if TR of firm 1 is:

MR = 10 – 1q1

4 0

2 years ago

You got asked to analyze a 5 year project for your firm. The project produces an annual revenue of $28,500, but requires an annu

hram777 [196]

Answer:

15,300

72.70%

Explanation:

After tax cash flow = (revenue - cost - depreciation) (1 - tax rate) + depreciation

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($20,000 - $5,000) / 5 = $3,000

($28,500 - $5,000 - $3000) x (1 - 0.4) + $3000 = $15,300

Terminal year cash flow = after tax cash flow + salvage value

$15,300 + $5,000 = $20,300

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 0 = $20,000.

Cash flow in year 1 - 4= $15,300

Cash flow in year 5 = $20,300

IRR = 72.70%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.

8 0

3 years ago

Dingo Division’s operating results include: controllable margin of $150,000, sales totaling $1,200,000, and average operating as

LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

<u>Dingo should reject this project </u>

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Explanation:

sales - operating expenses = controllable margin

controllable margin/operating asset = return on assets

100,000 sales - 86,000 expenses = 14,000

14,000/200,000 = 0.07 = 7%

This project yield 7% which is lower than Ding required rate of return of 9%

Dingo should reject this project of finance it through a lower cost of capital.

4 0

3 years ago