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Andrew [12]
3 years ago
10

PLEASE HELP IMMEDIATELY! HURRY!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fynjy0 [20]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5 * 5 * 5 * 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the rules of Indices.

5⁶⁻²

= 5⁴

Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation Bc 5 times 0 is nothing 5 times 3 is 15

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Let $$X_1, X_2, ...X_n$$ be uniformly distributed on the interval 0 to a. Recall that the maximum likelihood estimator of a is $
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

a) \hat a = max(X_i)  

For this case the value for \hat a is always smaller than the value of a, assuming X_i \sim Unif[0,a] So then for this case it cannot be unbiased because an unbiased estimator satisfy this property:

E(a) - a= 0 and that's not our case.

b) E(\hat a) - a= \frac{na}{n+1} - a = \frac{na -an -a}{n+1}= \frac{-a}{n+1}

Since is a negative value we can conclude that underestimate the real value a.

\lim_{ n \to\infty} -\frac{1}{n+1}= 0

c) P(Y \leq y) = P(max(X_i) \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y, X_2 \leq y, ..., X_n\leq y)

And assuming independence we have this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y) P(X_2 \leq y) .... P(X_n \leq y) = [P(X_1 \leq y)]^n = (\frac{y}{a})^n

f_Y (Y) = n (\frac{y}{a})^{n-1} * \frac{1}{a}= \frac{n}{a^n} y^{n-1} , y \in [0,a]

e) On this case we see that the estimator \hat a_1 is better than \hat a_2 and the reason why is because:

V(\hat a_1) > V(\hat a_2)

\frac{a^2}{3n}> \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

n(n+2) = n^2 + 2n > n +2n = 3n and that's satisfied for n>1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Part a

For this case we are assuming X_1, X_2 , ..., X_n \sim U(0,a)

And we are are ssuming the following estimator:

\hat a = max(X_i)  

For this case the value for \hat a is always smaller than the value of a, assuming X_i \sim Unif[0,a] So then for this case it cannot be unbiased because an unbiased estimator satisfy this property:

E(a) - a= 0 and that's not our case.

Part b

For this case we assume that the estimator is given by:

E(\hat a) = \frac{na}{n+1}

And using the definition of bias we have this:

E(\hat a) - a= \frac{na}{n+1} - a = \frac{na -an -a}{n+1}= \frac{-a}{n+1}

Since is a negative value we can conclude that underestimate the real value a.

And when we take the limit when n tend to infinity we got that the bias tend to 0.

\lim_{ n \to\infty} -\frac{1}{n+1}= 0

Part c

For this case we the followng random variable Y = max (X_i) and we can find the cumulative distribution function like this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(max(X_i) \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y, X_2 \leq y, ..., X_n\leq y)

And assuming independence we have this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y) P(X_2 \leq y) .... P(X_n \leq y) = [P(X_1 \leq y)]^n = (\frac{y}{a})^n

Since all the random variables have the same distribution.  

Now we can find the density function derivating the distribution function like this:

f_Y (Y) = n (\frac{y}{a})^{n-1} * \frac{1}{a}= \frac{n}{a^n} y^{n-1} , y \in [0,a]

Now we can find the expected value for the random variable Y and we got this:

E(Y) = \int_{0}^a \frac{n}{a^n} y^n dy = \frac{n}{a^n} \frac{a^{n+1}}{n+1}= \frac{an}{n+1}

And the bias is given by:

E(Y)-a=\frac{an}{n+1} -a=\frac{an-an-a}{n+1}= -\frac{a}{n+1}

And again since the bias is not 0 we have a biased estimator.

Part e

For this case we have two estimators with the following variances:

V(\hat a_1) = \frac{a^2}{3n}

V(\hat a_2) = \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

On this case we see that the estimator \hat a_1 is better than \hat a_2 and the reason why is because:

V(\hat a_1) > V(\hat a_2)

\frac{a^2}{3n}> \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

n(n+2) = n^2 + 2n > n +2n = 3n and that's satisfied for n>1.

8 0
4 years ago
Help asap I only have 10 minutes!
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

3/6 or 1/2 meter lomg.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For a function f(x), the difference quotient is 21x2 + 21xh + 7h2 + 2. Which statement describes how to determine the average ra
aleksley [76]

Answer:

Substitute –3 for x and 5 for h in the difference quotient.

Step-by-step explanation:

The difference quotient for the function f(x) is  21x² + 21xh + 7h² + 2. Now, we know that the difference quotient equal f(x + h) - f(x) = 21x² + 21xh + 7h² + 2. The change in x is h = x₂ - x₁. So, if x changes from x = -3 to x = 2,  where x₁ = -3 and x₂ = 2, h = x₂ - x₁ = 2 - (-3) = 2 + 3 = 5.

So to find the average rate of change of f(x) from x = -3 to x = 2, we substitute x = -3 and h = 5 into the difference equation  f(x + h) - f(x) = 21x² + 21xh + 7h² + 2. Since, x starts at x = -3 and increases by 5 units to x = 2.

3 0
4 years ago
Lawrence drives the same distance monday through Friday commuting to and from work. Last week Lawrence drove 25 miles on the wee
alexira [117]

Answer:

60 - 25 = 35

35 / 7 = 5

Lawrence drives 5 miles each day commuting to and from work.

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose you have a standard deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that if you select a card at random that it does not have
mr Goodwill [35]

0.92

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 cards in a deck of 52 cards that has a face value of 3. That means that the other 48 cards don't have a face value of 3. Therefore, the probability of picking a card of this deck that doesn't have a face value of 3 is

P =\dfrac{48}{52} = 0.92

4 0
3 years ago
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