Happy to help!
The correct statement includes the word: management.
Public relations is best considered a management function.
I hope I have successfully assisted you. Let me know if you have any questions!
~Brooke❤️
Answer with its Explanation:
Free Money means the money that has to be paid back to the money lender within a reasonable time. The money lender usually is a trader who sells his product at credit allowing his customer a reasonable period to payback. Furthermore, the free money is termed free because they are interest free lendings.
In real life, free money is can be availed by purchasing products from the suppliers if you are acting as a middle man in the distribution channel or you are a small customer and your borrowings doesn't impact the supplier. Almost all of the businesses lend free money in the form of products because allowing credit increases the sales of the organizations.
Answer:
The strategy that would be least effective in reducing the company's criminal liability is:
D. It could donate to the election campaigns of the new members of Congress to establish goodwill.
Explanation:
While the other three options will effectively reduce the company's criminal liability exposure, option D is the least that is likely to have a positive or effective effect. This implies that option D is most likely to aggravate the criminal liability of the company as it will be regarded as bribery to cover up a crime.
Answer:
C. Balloon loan
Explanation:
Balloon loans are loans that can not fully amortize over its term. They are loans that are paid of with a large single final payments. A lump sum amount. It involves the borrower paying back a lower monthly percentage in exchange for paying a large one time payments at the end of the loan term. Either fixed or flexible interest rate structure can be used on it. Ballon loans are usually reserved for conditions when a business has to wait until a specific period before receiving payment from a client for its product or services.
Answer: 12.88%
Explanation:
The following information can.be inferred from the question:
Purchase price of share = $36.48
Dividend = $1.62
Selling price = $41.18
Capital gain = $41.18 - $36.48 = $4.70
Capital gain yield:
= Capital gain / Purchase price × 100
= (4.70 / 36.48) × 100
= 0.1288
= 12.88%