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Brilliant_brown [7]

3 years ago

13

Are 5p+5c and 5(p+c) equivalent

1 answer:

Flura [38]3 years ago

6 0

Yes they are equivilent because of the distributive property
which is
a(b+c)=ab+ac
or in this case
5(p+c)=5p+5c
if you don't believe it *cough* *cough* *Brainiac01* *cough* *cough*
then subsitute values
lets sayp=4 and c=3
5(4)+5(3)=5(4+3)
20+15=5(7)
35=35
tada

so the answer is yes

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Step-by-step explanation:

<u>step(i)</u>

Given function y = 3 x³ - 2 x ... (i)

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<u><em>we know that </em></u>

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