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Brilliant_brown [7]
3 years ago
13

Are 5p+5c and 5(p+c) equivalent

Mathematics
1 answer:
Flura [38]3 years ago
6 0
Yes they are equivilent because of the distributive property
which is
a(b+c)=ab+ac
or in this case
5(p+c)=5p+5c
if you don't believe it *cough* *cough* *Brainiac01* *cough* *cough*
then subsitute values
lets sayp=4 and c=3
5(4)+5(3)=5(4+3)
20+15=5(7)
35=35
tada


so the answer is yes
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<u>step(i)</u>

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                     \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\frac{dy}{dt} }{\frac{dx}{dt} }

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 \frac{dy}{dt} = 34( 3 ) = 102

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