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3 years ago

Can someone please help me with this

Business

1 answer:

Alik [6]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

deferred revenue

Explanation:

Deferred revenue refers to payments received in advance for services which have not yet been performed or goods which have not yet been delivered.

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Kunkel Company makes two products and uses a conventional costing system. A single plantwide predetermined overhead rate is comp

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Total number of direct labor hours= (1,000*2) + (2,000*7)= 16,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,200,000 / 16,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $75 per direct labor hour

Now, we allocate overhead to each unit and calculate the unitary cost:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Mercon:

Allocated MOH= 75*2= $150

Unitary cost= 150 + 8 + 10= $168

Wurcon:

Allocated MOH= 75*7= $525

Unitary cost= 525 + 6 + 11= $542

Finally, using activity-based costing:

Mercon Wurcon Total

Engineering design time (in hours) 1,000 1,000 2,000

Direct labor-hours 2,000 14,000 16,000

Engineering= 600,000 / 2,000= $300 per design hour

Direct labor= 600,000 / 16,000= $37.5 per direct labor hour

Mercon:

Allocated MOH= 37.5*2 + 300*1= $375

Unitary cost= 375 + 8 + 10= $393

Wurcon:

Allocated MOH= 37.5*7 + 300*0.5= $412.5

Unitary cost= 412.5 + 6 + 11= $429.5

3 0

3 years ago

Teel Printing uses two measures of activity, press runs, and book set-ups, in the cost formulas in its budgets and performance r

hoa [83]

Answer:

Spending variance $100 unfavorable

Explanation:

The spending variance is the difference between the standard cost allowed for the actual activity and the actual cost of the activity

Standard cost allowed for the actual activity

=7,850 + (402×203) + (952×112)= 196,080

Actual cost 196,180

Spending variance  100 unfavorable

6 0

3 years ago

You purchased 1,000 shares of fund ABC for $35.00 NAV per share. You elected the dividend reinvestment plan and had all dividend

Serjik [45]

Answer:

B. - 5.71%

Explanation:

Given that

Purchase price = 1000 × 35 = 35000

Selling price = 1100 × 30 = 33000

Recall that

ROI = Net profit/total investment × 100

And that

Net profit = selling price - purchase price

= 33000 - 35000

= -2000

Therefore,

ROI = -2000/35000 × 100

= - 0.05714 × 100

= - 5.71 %

Thus, total return on investment is -5.71%

3 0

3 years ago

Theâ€‹ short-run aggregate supply curve slopes upward because of all of the following reasons except

ololo11 [35]

Answer:

B) in the short run, an unexpected change in the price of an important resource can change the cost to firms.

Explanation:

The short run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve is upward sloping because as the price of goods and services increases, the quantity supplied will increase. In the short run, wages are more sticky than prices, and businesses can adjust prices more rapidly than employees can get a raise. This will result in businesses increasing their profit margins as the general level of prices increases, therefore the SRAS curve will be upward sloping.

An unexpected change in the price of a key input will shift the entire SRAS curve either to the right (price of key input decreases) or to the left (price of key input increases).

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Bank A quotes a bid rate of $.300 and an ask rate of $.305 for the Malaysian ringgit (MYR). Bank B quotes a bid rate of $.306 an

alexdok [17]

Answer:

B. $1,639

Explanation:

To do arbitraje we will ask at Bank A for $0.305

and then bid in Bank B at $0.306

As the transactions has no cost we are doing a profit by using the exchange as they allowed. Doing this procedure will at some point eliminate the difference in exchange rate for these bank as the purchase will rise the ask rate for Bank A and the sale will decrease the bid rate.

$500,000 \times \frac{0.306}{0.305}$

Total: 501639,3442622951

The profit will be for: 501,639.34 - 500,000 = 1,639.34

7 0

3 years ago