Answer:
Jana just found out that she is going to receive an end-of-year bonus of $32,200. She is in the 35 percent marginal tax bracket. Calculate her income tax on this bonus.
- tax liability = $32,200 x 35% = $11,270
Now assume that instead of receiving a bonus, Jana receives the $32,200 as a long-term capital gain. What will be her tax?
- tax liability = $32,200 x 15% = $4,830
Which form of compensation offers Jana the best after-tax return?
- if the bonus is taxed as a long term capital gain, she will páy less than half the taxes, so it is the best option for her
Would your calculation be different if the gain was short-term rather than long-term?
- Short term capital gains are taxed at the same rate as ordinary income, so the difference between the bonus being a long vs short term capital gain is very significant to Jana.
Answer:
Everything else being equal, you should invest if the discounted value of the security's expected future cash flows is greater than or equal to the current cost of the security.
Explanation:
You would use the capital budgeting technique known as net present value (NPV) . In order for a project or investment to be accepted, the sum of the present values of future cash inflows generated by the project should be greater than the initial amount invested or the initial cost. If the PV of the future cashflows is lower than the initial cost of capital, the investment would be rejected. On the other hand, if they are equal, the investor would be indifferent between accepting or rejecting the investment.
Answer:
The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45
Explanation:
The current index value after 12 months = current stock index * (1 + risk free - dividend yield)^12
= 1800 * (1 + 0.50% - 0.20%)^12
The current index value after 12 months = 1865.88
The future index value after 12 months = future stock index * (1 + risk free - dividend yield)^12
= 1820 * (1 + 0.50% - 0.20%)^11
The future index value after 12 months= 1880.97
The cash flow mark to market proceeds = (future index future value - current index future value) * multiplier
= (1880.97 - 1865.88) * 50
The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45
Answer:
B. an unfavorable balance of trade and payments
Explanation:
- The BOP or the balance of trade is defined as the net gains or net exports that make the balance of payments and is said to be favorable when the country export more and imports less and is a positive change.
- It is said to be negative when the country imports more and exports less thus unfavorable in terms of the trade and payments.
- <u>Hence it means that the country has a deficit and this can impact the services and is not good for the economic growth perspective.</u>
