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lyudmila [28]
3 years ago
10

Probably the least effective means of aligning management goals with shareholder interests is:-the potential for a proxy fight b

y an unhappy segment of shareholders.-basing all management bonuses on performance goals.-holding management salaries steady while increasing stock option grants.-the threat of a takeover of the firm.-automatically increasing management salaries on an annual basis.
Business
1 answer:
Strike441 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

Which one of the following is most apt to align management's priorities with shareholders' interests?-Holding corporate and shareholder meetings at high-end resort-type locations preferred by managers-Compensating managers with shares of stock that must be held for a minimum of three years-Paying a special management bonus on every fifth year of employment-Increasing the number of paid holidays that long-term employees are entitled to receive-Allowing employees heiw

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You are considering adding a microbrewery on to one of your firm's existing restaurants. This will entail an increase in invento
scoray [572]

Answer:

The answer is: D) $5,500

Explanation:

To calculate the change in working capital we use the following formula:

Change in working capital = change in current assets - change in current liabilities

Since we don't know the current assets or liabilities from previous years, we can consider them to be 0.

Change in working capital = current assets - current liabilities

Change in working capital = $8,000 (inventory) - $2,500 (accounts payable)

Change in working capital = $5,500

6 0
3 years ago
Icy Mocha Company estimates its factory overhead costs to be $35,000 and machine hours to be 5,000 for the year. If the actual h
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

$160 overapplied

Explanation:

Icy Mocha company estimates it's factory overhead costs to be $35,000 and machine hours to be 5,000 for a period of one year.

The actual number of hours worked on job 333 and 334 equals a total of 4,980

The actual factory overhead costs are $34,700

The first step is to calculate the predetermined overhead rate

= Overhead costs/machine hours

= $35,000/5,000

= $7

The amount of either over or underapplied factory costs can be calculated as follows

= predetermined overhead rate×actual number of hours worked

= $7×4,980

= $34,860

The amount is then subtracted from the actual overhead costs

= $34,700-$34860

= -$160

= $160 overapplied

Hence the amount of overapplied factory overhead is $160

4 0
3 years ago
The user I want To report is justxk
kogti [31]
How do I report them for you
5 0
3 years ago
Determine the profit-maximizingLOADING... prices when a firm faces two markets where the inverse demand curves are Market​ A: p
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

Market A: P_{A} = 20.00

Market B: P_{B} = 20.00

Explanation:

Market A: P_{A} = 80 - 2Q_{A} ........................ (1)

Market B: P_{B} = 60 - 1Q_{B} ........................ (2)

MC = m = 20 ............................................... (3) for both markets

For Market A:

Profit maximizing price can be obtained when  P_{A} = m

Therefore, we have:

80 - 2Q_{A} = 20

80 - 20 = 2Q_{A}

60 = 2Q_{A}

Q_{A} = \frac{60}{2}

Q_{A} = 30

Substituting 50 for Q_{A} in equation (1), we have:

P_{A} = 80 - 2(30)

P_{A} = 80 - 60

P_{A} = 20.00

For Market B:

Profit maximizing price can be obtained when  P_{B} = m

Therefore, we have:

60 - 1Q_{B} = 20

60 - 20 = 1Q_{B}

40 = 1Q_{B}

Q_{B} = 40

Substituting 80 for Q_{B} in equation (2), we have:

P_{B} = 60 - 1(40)

P_{B} = 20.00

8 0
4 years ago
As a result of a slowdown in operations, Mercantile Stores is offering to employees who have been terminated a severance package
azamat

Answer:

$487,137.

Explanation:

So,new are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to aid or assist us in solving this particular Question or problem.

=> "Mercantile Stores is offering to employees who have been terminated a severance package of $100,000 cash, another $100,000 to be paid in one year, and an annuity of $30,000 to be paid each year for 20 years. "

=> "assuming an interest rate of 8 percent. (Future Value of $1, Present Value of $1, Future Value Annuity of $1, Present Value Annuity of $1)"

STEP ONE: determine the present value of a payment in 1 year.

Present value = face value/ (1 + rate of interest)^number of year.

Present value = 100,000/ (1 + 0.08)^1.

Present value = $294,544

STEP TWO: determine the present value in the next 20 years.

Present value in the next 20 years = 30,000/0.08 { 1 - (1 + 0.08)^-20}.

Present value in the next 20 years = $294,544.

STEP THREE: detemine the total present value.

total present value = $100,000 + $294,544 + $294,544 = $487,137.

3 0
3 years ago
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