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kompoz [17]
4 years ago
8

g 5. (5 points) Next, let’s turn our attention to the vector space P2, which is the set of polynomial with degree at most 2, tog

ether with polynomial addition and scalar multiplication. Let p1 = 1−x+2x2 p2 = 3+x p3 =5−x+4x2 p4 =−2−2x+2x2. Is the span{p1,p2,p3,p4}={k1p1 +k2p2 +k3p3 +k4p4 :k1,k2,k3,k4 ∈R}=P2? That is, can every polynomial of degree at most two be written as a linear com- bination of p1, p2, p3 and p4? Explain.
Mathematics
1 answer:
almond37 [142]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

No, those vectors do not span P₂

Step-by-step explanation:

At first, notice we have 4 vectors from a vector space of dimension 3 ({1,x,x²} is the standard base of P₂) so we are sure they are linearly dependent (because there are more than 3 vectors) i.e. it´s possible to write one of them in terms of other in the same set:

p4=p1-p2

(2x^{2} -x+1) - (x+3) = 2x^{2}-2x-2

Now, we conclude the span {p1,p2,p3,p4} = {p1,p2,p3}

If we want to know the subspace that this span gets, we work with the matrix of the vectors made as follows:

A=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&3&5\\-1&1&-1\\2&0&4\end{array}\right]

The row-reduction of this matrix show us the basis of the same row-subspace even in the case that some of them are linearly dependent:

A\ is\ row--equivalent\ to:\left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&0&\frac{1}{2}\\0&1&-\frac{3}{2}}\\0&0&0\end{array}\right]

This shows that the span {p1,p2,p3}={(1+0.5x²),(x-1.5x²)}

Looking in the previous equality, the span {p1,p2,p3} is generated by two linearly independent vectors, but P₂ needs 3 linearly independent vectors to be generated.

The answer is that {p1,p2,p3,p4}⊂P₂.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

  1. f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective implies there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y.
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Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective. From this we know that for every y\in Y there exist, at least, one x\in X such that y=f(x).

Now, define the sets X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}. Notice that the set X_y is the pre-image of the element y. Also, from the fact that f is a function we deduce that X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset, and because  f the sets X_y are no empty.

From each set X_y  choose only one element x_y, and notice that f(x_y)=y.

So, we can define the function h:Y\rightarrow X as h(y)=x_y. It is no difficult to conclude that f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y. With this we have that f\circ h=1_Y, and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function  h:Y\rightarrow X  such that f\circ h=1_Y.

Take an element y\in Y, then f\circ h(y)=y. Now, write x=h(y) and notice that x\in X. Also, with this we have that f(x)=y.

So, for every element y\in Y we have found that an element x\in X (recall that x=h(y)) such that y=f(x), which is equivalent to the fact that f is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

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