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baherus [9]
3 years ago
10

Please help me with this question urgent help please

Mathematics
1 answer:
Elanso [62]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Since (a^m) ^ n = a^(m * n), we can write this as v⁶ * ⁽⁻⁷⁾ = v⁻⁴². Since we don't want a negative exponent, remember that a⁻ⁿ = 1 / aⁿ so the answer is 1 / v⁴².

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