Amount invested in both schemes is $45,000
returns in investment g is 75,000 in 6 years.
yearly return is:
75000/6=12,500
returns in investment h is 105,000 in 9 years
yearly return is:
105,000/9
=11,666.67
from the above results we can conclude that investment g has the higher returns.
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one:
(1) <span>B)People prefer tangible items, so the government would not be able to satisfy demand for the tangible item at any fixed rate of exchange
</span>(2) <span>B)Potential buyers of the assets of a bank, incorrectly rumored to be distressed, may suspect the assets to be of poor quality.
</span>(3) <span>C) The Federal Reserve ("the Fed") stands ready to inject reserves into the system more quickly in a crisis.
</span>(4) <span>A)Checkable Deposits / Required Reserves</span>
Answer:
Accumulated depreciation= $276,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
On January 2, 2019, Kaiman Corporation acquired equipment for $ 700,000. The estimated life of the equipment is 5 years. The estimated residual value is $ 10,000.
Depreciable value= 700,000 - 10,000= 690,000
Straight-line depreciation= 690,000/5= $138,000
Accumulated depreciation= 138,000*2= $276,000
Answer:
1. Medium of exchange, 2. Unit of Account and 3. Store of value
Explanation:
Please see attachment
Answer: $4,811
Explanation:
Assuming 6% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year are estimated to be uncollectible that would be,
= 6% * 98,700
= $5,922
The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts acts as a buffer for the business when bad debts are incurred.
Bad debts are taken from the Allowance as the Allowance has already been removed from the Receivables.
In cases where Bad debts exceed the buffer in the Allowance for Doubtful Debt Account we take everything in it and the remaining bad debt amount is debited to Bad Debt expense.
That would be,
= 5,922 - 1,111
= $4,811
$4,811 is the amount that should be debited to Bad Debts Expense.
