What is the answer to 3/4d-1/2=3/8+1/2d
1 answer:
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Set up your conversion using dimensional analysis. That's just a fancy way of saying set up your values so you cancel what you don't need and keep what you do. If we want to convert miles per hour to feet per second, we need to convert the miles to feet using the fact that there are 5280 feet in 1 mile, and then convert the hours to seconds using the fact that there are 3600 seconds in an hour. Your set up will look like this (it's all about setting up the fractions correctly): . If you look at that closely, you can see the there is a label of miles on the top in the first fraction and on the bottom in the second fraction. Those cancel each other out by reducing. Then in the bottom of the first fraction there is hours and in the top of the last fraction there is hours. Those cancel out. From top to bottom or bottom to top you can cancel like labels. This leaves us with feet in the top and seconds in the bottom. Now it's a matter of doing the math. You multiply straight across the top and straight across the bottom.
. Simplifying you get 46.933 feet per second.
The sign of f on the interval -5/3 is negative
<h3>How to determine the sign?</h3>The function is given as:
f(x)=(2x−1)(3x+5)(x+1)
The zeros of the function are
x= -5/3, x= -1 and x= 1/2
Next, we plot the graph of the function
At x = -5/3, the function approaches negative infinity
This means that the sign of f on the interval -5/3 is negative
Read more about function intervals at:
#SPJ1
Answer:
Step by step Explanation'
To solve this problem, we will need to apply trial-and-error calculation with the binomial distribution, even though it appears like Central Limit Theorem but it's not.
For us to know the value of C , we will look for a minimum integer such that having 'n' number of high performance level of employee has the probability below 0.01.
Determine the maximum value of C, then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n
Let us represent X as the number of employees with high performance with a binomial distribution of
P =0.02( since the percentage of chance of achieving a high performance level is 2%)
n = 20 ( number of employees who achieve a high performance level)
The probability of X= 0 can be calculated
P( X= 0) = 0.98^n
Summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1)+P( X= 2) will give us the value of 0.993 which is greater than 0.99( 1% that the fund will be inadequate to cover all payments for high performance.)
BUT the summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1) will give the value of 0.94 which doesn't exceed the 0.99 value,
Therefore, the minimum value of integer in such a way that P(X >2) is less than 0.01 have n= 2
then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n