How can someone make money legitimately from their phone?

Plan production for a four-month period: February through May. For February and March, you should produce to exact demand foreca

Alex73 [517]

Answer:

The optimal production plan gives a total costs of $417,672 for the periods Feb to May

In Feb we will have to hire 26 workers to close the gap between demand and production from our 100 existing workers

In March however, we will have to lay them off (26 workers) to keep our production in line with demand.

In April, we are constrained to 100 workers, thus requiring that we run overtime. The overtime requirement is between 3,060 hours to max of 5,000 hours. Note that inspire of the hours chosen, demand for April still won't be fulfilled.

The best option will be the one that gives us last backlog because of the costs of backorder being extremely costly.

5,000 overtime hours in April is the best option .

In May, we are constrained to our 100 workers, meaning we will fulfill our back orders and also retain inventory in hand of 7,760 units.

The 3 pages attached show how the cost is worked out and the presentation as well.

3 0

3 years ago

Match each description to the trait it relates to.

Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

A : 4

B : 3

C : 2

D : 1

Explanation:

plato

5 0

2 years ago

On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty

likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

the Straight-line method is $90,000.
the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0

3 years ago

An alternative name for Bad Debt Expense is A. Collection Expense.B. Credit Loss Expense.C. Uncollectible Accounts Expense.D. De

PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

An alternative is also known as Uncollectible accounts expense

Explanation:

A bad debt expense is recognized when a receivable is no longer collectible because a customer is unable to fulfill their obligation to pay an outstanding debt due to bankruptcy or other financial problems.

Bad debt expenses are generally classified as a sales and general administrative expense and are found on the income statement. Recognizing bad debts leads to an offsetting reduction to accounts receivable on the balance sheet.

<u>Bad debt expense is also known as Uncollectible accounts expense</u>

6 0

3 years ago

On December 31, 2006, Frye Co. has $2,000,000 of short-term notes payable due on February 14, 2007. On February 2, 2007, Frye is

Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is $500,000

Explanation:

The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is computed as:

Amount of short term notes payable = Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 - Borrowed from County Bank

where

Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 is $2,000,000

Borrowed from County Bank is $1,500,000

Putting the values above:

Amount of short term notes payable = $2,000,000 - $1,500,000

Amount of short term notes payable = $500,000

5 0

3 years ago

How can someone make money legitimately from their phone?​

How can someone make money legitimately from their phone?