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Simora [160]
3 years ago
12

Suppose the U.S. economy is initially at long run equilibrium, when there is an unexpected large increase in the price of steel

used by firms in production. How does this impact the U.S. economy? (write out either "inflationary" or "recessionary" In response to this what monetary policy would the Fed employ? (write one of the following: "raise taxes", "lower taxes", "raise money supply", or "lower money supply" What is the most likely way the Fed will accomplish this change in the monetary policy? (write one of the following: "buy securities", "sell securities", "raise discount rate", "lower discount rate", or "legislation" This action by the Fed will cause interest rates to _______. (Write out "increase" or "decrease" The end result of the monetary policy is a shift of which curve in which direction. (Write out one of the following: "AD right", "AD left" "AS left", "AS right"
Business
1 answer:
dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The price hike in the price of steel would cause an inflationary push in the U.S. economy, because steel is a input to the production processes of many firms.

In this scenario, the fed would lower the money supply in order to stop the inflationary push from continuing. To do so, the fed would sell government securities.

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Aggregate planning is capacity planning that typically covers a time horizon of one to three months. True or false?
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Aggregate planning is typically done 6-18 months prior to the time period it covers.

8 0
3 years ago
Condelezza Co. manufactures two products, A and B, in two production departments, Assembly and Finishing. Condelezza Co. expects
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

a.

Factory Overhead rate

$13.75 per hour

Production department rates

Assembly =  $15.5 permachine hour

Finishing = $12.0 per machine hour

b.

Plant-wide

Product A = $27.5 per unit

Product B = $13.75 per unit

Department-wide

Product A = $34.21 per unit

Product B = $10.40 perunit

c.

Departmental Method is more accurate.

Explanation:

a.

Factory overhead rates = Total Budgeted Overhead / Total Budgeted Machine Hours

Factory overhead rate = $550,000 / ( 20,000 + 20,000 ) = $13.75 per hour

Production department rates:

Assembly Department = $310,000 / 20,000 machine hours = $15.50 per machine hours

Finishing Department = $240,000 / 20,000 machine hours = $12.00 per machine hours

b.  

Factory overhead cost per unit

Plantwide rate

Product A

Applied Overhead = $13.75 per machine hour x 20,000 hours = $275,000

Overhead per unit = $275,000 / 10,000units =$27.50 per unit

Product B

Applied Overhead = $13.75 per machine hour x 20,000 hours = $275,000 Overhead per unit = $275,000 / 20,000 = $13.75 per unit

Departmental

Product A

Assembly Department = $15.50 per machine hour x 15,100 machine hours = $234,050

Finishing Department = $12.00 per machine hour x 9,000 machine hours = $108,000

Total overhead = $234,050 + $108,000 = $342,050

Per unit = $342,050 / 10,000 = $34.21

Product B

Assembly Department = $15.50 per machine hour x 4,900 machine hours = $75,950

Finishing Department = $12.00 per machine hour x 11,000 machine hour = $132,000

Total = $207,950

Per unit = $207,950 / 20,000= $10.40

c.

The department rate method is more accurate than plantwide.

In plantwide method there is an overcosting of each unit of A and undercosting of each unit of B.

4 0
3 years ago
On December 30 of the current year, Azrael, Inc., purchased a machine from Abiss Corp. in exchange for a noninterest-bearing not
Brut [27]

Answer:

$94,244

Explanation:

Data provided as per the question below:-

Note payable amount = $20,000

rate of interest = 11%

The computation of the present value of factors are shown below:-

Here we are using the annuity table of present value at 11% for 7 years

Present value of factors = Note payable amount × present value annuity factor

= $20,000 × 4.7122

= $94,244

5 0
3 years ago
Procter and Gamble wants to test a new promotion campaign that employs Internet-based promotions, particularly added use of soci
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

D. A controlled test market

Explanation:

A controlled test market is a thoroughly planned marketing test that aims to provide companies valuable, critical insight that is essential to analyse the success of a new product/service. By conducting a controlled test market, the companies can monitor customer reactions and preferences, or the advertisement's influence. Although this is not conducted in a typical sandbox environment, this is almost always a small market.

8 0
3 years ago
The variance of returns of Asset A is 625. The variance of returns of Asset B is 1,225. The covariance of returns between Asset
kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

The correlation of returns between Asset A and Asset B is closest to 0.685714

or 68.57%

Explanation:

The formula to find the correlation of an asset is

Correlation of AB = Co variance AB/Standard deviation A * Standard deviation B

Co variance AB =600

Standard deviation of A= (625)^0.5=25

Standard deviation of B = (1,225)^0.5=35

Put these values in the formula

600/(25*35)=0.685714

8 0
3 years ago
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