Assuming your system of equations is
The answer is C. Infinitely many solutions. If my assumption is incorrect, then the answer will be likely different.
The reason why it's "infinitely many solutions" is because the first equation is the same as the second equation. The only difference is that everything was multiplied by -1. You could say that both sides were multiplied by -1.
Both equations given graph out the same line. They overlap perfectly yielding infinitely many solution points on the line.
There are 13 clubs in a standard 52 card deck. The first time you draw a club the odds of doing it are
13/52 = 1/4
The second time you draw a club, the number of clubs have gone down by 1 and the number of cards in the deck have also gone down by 1.
So this time the odds are12/51
The probability of both happening, one after the other without replacement is
1/4 * 12/51 = (1*12)/(4*51) = 12/204 = 3/51 = 1/17
1/17 = 0.0588
Answer: where’s the diagram
Step-by-step explanation:
0.33. 1/3= 0.33
d= (6 x 523)
Pi
0.33
d= (3138) divide by pi first
0.33
d= 999.36
d= 9.77
