Answer: 2.63
Explanation:
The Market to Book ratio is also referred to as the price to book ratio. It is a financial evaluation of the market value of a company relative to its book value. It should be noted that the market value is current stock price of every outstanding shares that the company has while the book value is the amount that the company will have left after its assets have been liquidated and all liabilities have been repaid.
The market-to-book ratio will be the market price per share divided by the book value. It should be noted that the book value per share is the net worth of the business divided by the number of outstanding shares. The book value will be:
= [(12500 ×1) + $21200]/12500
= ($12500 + $21200)/$12500
= $33700/12500
=$2.70
The market-to-book ratio will now be:
= $7.10/$2.70
=2.63
Answer:
Statement # 1: False
Statement # 2: True
Statement # 3: False
Statement # 4: True
Explanation:
Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.
Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.
Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.
Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.
Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.
Answer: $104.369 million
Explanation:
Given that,
Total Liabilities = $81.319 million
Cash = $8.040 million
Total Assets = $190.768 million
Total Common Stock = $5.080 million
Therefore,
Total assets = Total liabilities + Total stockholders' equity
$190.768 million = $81.319 million + Total stockholders' equity
Total stockholders' equity = $190.768 million - $81.319 million
= $ 109.449 million
Total stockholders' equity = Total common stock + Retained earnings
Retained earnings = Total stockholders' equity - Total common stock
= $ 109.449 million - $5.080 million
= $104.369 million
Answer:
if, before the sale, notice is given to Fertile Farm.
Explanation:
hope this helps you have a nice day :)
Answer:
The minimum value is $196,362.95
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $20,000
The number of years= 20 years
Interest rate= 8%
First, we need to calculate the future value of the cash flows. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= cash flow
FV= {20,000*[(1.08^20)-1]} /0.08
FV= $915,239.29
Now, we can calculate the present value. The present value is the minimum value yo accept.
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 915,239.29/ 1.08^20
PV= $196,362.95
