Answer:
Year 1 PV = 91,743.12
Year 2 PV =126,251.99
Year 3 PV = 154,436.70
Explanation:
<em>The present value of future sum is the amount that ought to be invested today at interest rate compounded annually to equal the sum at the end of a particular period.</em>
The present value of a future sum is given as follows:
PV = FV × PV (1+r)^(-n)
PV - present value
FV - Future value
r- interest rate
n- number of years
Year 1 PV = 100,000× 1.09^(-1) =91,743.12
Year 2 PV = 150,000× 1.09^(-2) =126,251.99
Year 3 PV = 200,000× 1.09^(-3) = 154,436.70
Answer:
The best allocation base for assembling activities costs are the number of parts actually assembled.
Since the number of parts is not an option int his question, the second best allocation base for the assembling process is A) direct labor hours.
If the process is highly automated, then the second best allocation base would be machine hours, but that isn't an option either.
Answer:
50 Months
Explanation:
If there is no compound interest it would be 50 Months. You would divide 250,000 by 5,000 to get the months.
174=(1+455)c
c=174/456
c=0,3815789474
The answer is a definite NO. No one should EVER cash in their 401(k) to pay off debt. You will never be able to recover from the loss of compounding interest if you take out money from your retirement account. This money should be saved for retirement or EXTREME emergencies.
Im this case, Austin should take the amount of his raise and use that to start paying down his debt FASTER.