Answer:
1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
gradient= change in y/ change in x
-4--5/2--4= 1/6
1/6 is the gradient
Answer: well, C is definitely correct so we can knock that off the board. D i am not so sure about considering that is the most impotant thing in trade so, the and would be D.
hope this helped you...
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
∠x = 90°
∠y = 58°
∠z = 32°
Step-by-step explanation:
The dimensions of the angles given are;
∠B = 32°
Whereby ΔABC is a right-angled triangle, and the square fits at angle A, we have;
∠A = 90°
∴ ∠B + ∠C = 90° which gives
32° + ∠C = 90°
∠C = 58°
∠x + Interior angle of the square = 180° (Sum of angles on a straight line)
∴ ∠x + 90° = 180°
Hence;
∠x = 90°
∠x + ∠y + 32° = 180° (Sum of angles in a triangle)
∴ 90° + ∠y + 32° = 180°
∠y = 180 - 90° - 32° = 58°
∠y + ∠z + Interior angle of the square = 180° (Sum of angles on a straight line)
58° + ∠z +90° = 180°
∴ ∠z = 32°
∠x = 90°
∠y = 58°
∠z = 32°
Answer:
the number would be 48 i think
Step-by-step explanation:
48 + 48 = 96
96 + 4 = 100
Answer:

And using the probability mass function we got:

Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
For this cae that one buggy whip would be defective is 
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:

And using the probability mass function we got:
