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love history [14]
3 years ago
12

When conducting a SWOT analysis, budgets, ratios, and sales reports can be used to identify:(A) Environmental opportunities and

threats(B) Company strengths and weaknesses(C) Environmental strengths and weaknesses(D) Company opportunities and threats
Business
1 answer:
polet [3.4K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Company strengths and weaknesses.

Explanation:

The SWOT (<em>Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats</em>) analysis is an study of the <em>internal </em>(strengths and weaknesses) and <em>external </em>(opportunities and threats) features of a company that could allow them to spot issues on time in the attempt to mitigate risks using the core competencies of the firm and environmental events from where the entity can profit.

<em>Budgets, ratios, and sales reports are internal information of the company, thus, they could represent strengths and weaknesses depending on the current situation of the firm.</em>

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Explain what ""market value of a corporation"" means. How does that compare to the ""book value"" of a corporation?
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Market value of a corporation is its value according to the stock market. Book value on the other hand is the difference between assets and liabilities of a corporation.

Explanation:

The market value of a corporation is the value attributed to it by the financial market. It is calculated by multiplying the price of each share by the number of outstanding shares.  

The book value is the value of the corporation if the assets are liquidated and liabilities are paid off. It is calculated by finding the difference between assets and liabilities.  

If the market value of a corporation is greater than its book value it means the market does not believe that the company is worth what it has mentioned in its book value.  

If the market value is higher than the book value, it indicates that the market has confidence in the corporation's ability to generate earnings in the future.

6 0
4 years ago
Wentworth's Five and Dime Store has a cost of equity of 11.4 percent. The company has an aftertax cost of debt of 5 percent, and
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

WACC = 6.66 %

Explanation:

<em>Weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of all of the long-term types of finance used by a company weighted according to the that amount of finance used in relation to the total pool of fund</em>

WACC = (Wd×Kd)  +  (We×Ke)

After-tax cost of debt = Before tax cost of debt× (1-tax rate)

Kd-After-tax cost of debt = 5%

Ke-Cost of equity = 11.4%

Wd-Weight f debt -74%

We-Weight of equity = 26%

WACC = (0.74× 5%)  + (0.26 × 11.4%) = 6.66 %

WACC = 6.66 %

8 0
4 years ago
country cupboard purchased inventory for 5500 and also paid a 360 freight bill. Country cupboard returned 45% of the goods to th
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

$3,475.75

Explanation:

the journal entries required to record the purchases are:

Dr Inventory 5,500

    Cr Accounts payable 5,500

Dr Inventory 360

    Cr Cash 360

Dr Accounts payable 2,475

    Cr Inventory 2,475

Dr Accounts payable 3,025

    Cr Cash 2,934.25

    Cr Purchase discounts 90.75

Cost of inventory = $5,500 + $360 - $2,475 - $90.75 = $3,475.75

7 0
3 years ago
Scallion Company received the following reports of its defined benefit pension plan for the current calendar year: PBO Plan asse
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

The pension expense for the year is 198,400

Explanation:

According to the reports received by the company we have the following relevant data to calculate the pension expense for the year:

Service cost of $ 193,000

Interest cost of $ 31,000

Considering that the long-term expected rate of return on plan assets is 10%, then $ 256,000×10%= 25,600

Pension expense for the year= Service cost of $ 193,000 +Interest cost of $ 31,000-25,600= 198,400.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jerry recently was offered a position with a major accounting firm. The firm offered Jerry either a signing bonus of $23,000 pay
creativ13 [48]

Answer. D) The signing bonus of $26,000 payable after one year of employment.

Explanation: Because it is more advantageous on him and also he has the time to payback within a year. He will be at rest to use fund for something that can fetch more money even within the 12 months period.

7 0
3 years ago
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