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muminat
4 years ago
15

When there is a full forward cover with the spot rate equal to the forward rate all of the following are true​ EXCEPT: A. The cu

rrency hedge ratio is equal to 1. B. The hedge is asymmetric. C. The total position is a perfect hedge. D. There is no uncovered exposure remaining.
Business
1 answer:
Blababa [14]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B. The hedge is asymmetric.

Explanation:

Hedging refers to a technique or a mechanism whereby firms and individuals aim for risk reduction, arising out of uncertain and volatile business situations, which may result into a heavy loss.

For example, an exporter entering into a forward contract to eliminate or reduce the risk of arising out of a future situation wherein, future receipts denominated in a foreign currency, receivable at a future date, may be less than same receipts receivable at current spot exchange rate as on today.

Currency hedge ratio depicts the proportion of total exposure which is covered by hedge w.r.t the total exposure itself.

Asymmetrical hedge refers to covering an exposure by an opposite position wherein the chances of earning profits are higher than the losses current position can lead to. Such an hedge would be similar to covering a call option with a put option. Asymmetrical refers to being of dissimilar or non equal size. Here, it refers to the dissimilarity between prospective profits and losses.

Under a perfect hedge, the loss position in a scenario is completely covered i.e 100% by a prospective gain in other situation, with there being negative correlation between the two scenarios such as if scenario 1 yields a profit, scenario 2 would yield a loss and vice versa.

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calculate the following future value given the assumptions below: Assume an individual invests $250/mo for 30 years at an expect
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According to the Question, We are given,

An individual invests $250/m for 30 years at an expected rate of return of 8 percent.

To Calculate the Future Value,

<h3><u>SOLUTION</u></h3>

Here, the deposits will be same every month, so it is an annuity. We will use the following future value of annuity formula:

FVA = P × ((1 + r)ⁿ  - 1 / r)

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Now, putting these values in the above formula, we get,

FVA = $250 × ((1 + 0.6667%)360 - 1 / 0.6667%)

FVA = $250 × ((1 + 0.006667)360 - 1 / 0.006667)

FVA = $250 × ((1.006667)360 - 1 / 0.006667)

FVA = $250 × ((10.9357296578 - 1 / 0.006667)

FVA = $250 × (9.9357296578 / 0.006667)

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So, future value is $372571.23

To know more about Future Value, check the given links.

brainly.com/question/24703884

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