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nevsk [136]
4 years ago
8

Consider a no-load mutual fund with $390 million in assets and 15 million shares at the start of the year and with $440 million

in assets and 16 million shares at the end of the year. During the year investors have received income distributions of $4 per share and capital gain distributions of $0.25 per share. Assuming that the fund carries no debt, and that the total expense ratio is 2%, what is the rate of return on the fund
Business
1 answer:
Lyrx [107]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

20%

Explanation:

The computation of rate of return on the fund is shown below:-

Net assets value at the beginning = Total assets ÷ Number of shares

= $390 million ÷ 15 million

= $26 million

Net assets value at the end of the year = (Total assets - Expenses) ÷ Number of shares

= ($440 million - ($440 million × 2%)) ÷ 16 million

= ($440 million - $8.8 million) ÷ 16 million

= $26.95 million

Now,

Rate of return = (Net assets value at the end of the year - Net assets value at the end of the year + Income distribution + Capital gain distribution) ÷ Net assets value at the beginning

= ($26.95 million - $26 million + $4 per share + $0.25 per share) ÷ $26 million

= $5.2 million ÷ $26 million

= 20%

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Marine Components produces parts for airplanes and ships. The parts are produced to specification by their customers, who pay ei
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated manufacturing overhead= $10 million.

Client 1 Client 2

Machine-hours (thousands) 2,000 2,000

Direct labor cost ($000) $2,500 $7,500

<u>To calculate the predetermined overhead rate, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Machine hours:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 10,000,000 / 4,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $2,500 per machine hour

Direct labor:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 10,000,000 / 10,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1,000 per direct labor dollar

6 0
3 years ago
a country that can sell its products at a lower cost because it has lower standards for emissions from manufacturing facilities
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

A country that can sell its products at a lower cost because it has lower standards for emissions from manufacturing facilities is making use of predatory dumping .

What Is Predatory Dumping?

  • A form of anti-competitive behavior known as predatory dumping involves a foreign corporation underpricing its goods in an effort to stifle domestic competition.
  • The corporation may eventually establish a monopoly in its chosen market by outpricing competitors.

What is an example of predatory dumping?

  • Predatory dumping is regarded as a dishonest commercial practice. When a business is completely informed of its actions and goals, it happens.
  • A glaring example is the onslaught of Chinese goods entering numerous international markets via physical storefronts, online, and marketplaces like E - Commerce company .

Learn more about predatory dumping

brainly.com/question/15288162

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
Confectioners, a chain of candy stores, purchases its candy in bulk from its suppliers. For a recent shipment, the company paid
Anton [14]

Answer:

correct option is b. $0.100

Explanation:

given data

Group 1 =  2,500 pieces that expected  sell = $0.25 each.

Group 2 = 5,500 pieces that expected  sell = $0.60 each.

Group 3 = 500 pieces that expected  sell =  $1.20 each

company paid  =$1,800

received = 8,500 pieces

to find out

cost per item in Group 1

solution

we get here sale value for all 3 groups that is

sale value for group 1 = 2500 × 0.15 = $375

sale value for group 2 = 5500 × 0.36 = $1980

sale value for group 3 = 500 × 0.72 = $360

so total sale value will be here as

total sale value = $375 + $1980 + $360

total sale value = $2715

now we get here % sale that is for group 1

% sale for group 1 = \frac{375}{2715}

% sale for group 1 = 13.81 %

and cost is here $1800

and proportion of cost for group 1 will be

proportion of cost = 1800 × 13.81%

proportion of cost = $248.58

and

cost per unit will be here as

cost per unit  = \frac{248.58}{2500}

cost per unit  = 0.10

so correct option is b. $0.100

8 0
3 years ago
You have been hired as a consultant by Feludi Inc.'s CFO, who wants you to help her estimate the cost of capital. You have been
damaskus [11]

Answer:

Based on the CAPM approach, the cost of common from reinvested earnings is e. 10.93%

Explanation:

Hi, first, let´s introduce the formula for the CAPM approach.

Cost(e)=rf+beta*RPM

Therefore:

Cost(e)=0.041+1.30*0.0525=0.1093

So, the cost od common from reinvested earnings is 10.93%, which would be option "e".

Best of luck.

7 0
3 years ago
Byrd Company produces one product, a putter called GO-Putter. Byrd uses a standard cost system and determines that it should tak
Katen [24]

Answer:

<em>Total Overhead Variance $156750 Favorable </em>

Explanation:

Given Data

Byrd Company

Normal production capacity 100,000 units per year

Direct Labor Hours at normal capacity = 100,000

Total budgeted overhead at normal capacity is $1,100,000

Variable costs $400,000

Fixed costs$700,000

Actual Production 71,800 putters

Actual Direct Labor Hours 99,000

Actual Variable Overheads $ 197450

Actual Fixed Overhead Costs $ 734,800

<u><em>Formulae And Calculations</em></u>

Predetermined Variable Overhead Rate = Variable Costs / Direct Labor Hours

Predetermined Variable Overhead Rate = $400,000 / $100,000 = $ 4 per hour

Predetermined Fixed Overhead Rate = Fixed Costs / Direct Labor Hours

                                          =$700,000 / $100,000 = $ 7 per hour

Applied Overhead = Applied Variable Costs + Applied Fixed Costs

                     = $ 4*99,000+ $ 7 *99,000=  $ 396,000 + $ 693,000=

Applied Overhead =$ 1089,000

Total Overhead Variance =  Actual Overhead - Overhead Applied

Total Overhead Variance =$ 197450+ $ 734,800-$ 1089,000

                         =932250-$ 1089,000= $156750 Favorable

It is favorable because actual is less than applied.

7 0
3 years ago
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