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Alisiya [41]
4 years ago
6

Bowzer Co. has just received $2.7 million from the sale of one of its divisions. The company has 375,000 shares outstanding that

sell for $84.13 per share. If the company issues the entire proceeds from the sale as a special dividend, what will the ex-dividend stock price be
Business
1 answer:
Readme [11.4K]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$76.93 per share

Explanation:

The computation of ex-dividend stock price is shown below:-

Sale of division = $2,7,00,000

Outstanding shares = 375,000

Dividend per share = Sale of division ÷ Outstanding shares

= $2,7,00,000 ÷ 375,000

= $7.2

Stock price after dividend = Sold shares - Dividend per share

= $84.13 - $7.2

= $76.93 per share

Therefore for computing the stock price per dividend we simply subtract dividend per share from sold shares.

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The Woods Co. and the Mickelson Co. have both announced IPOs at $56 per share. One of these is undervalued by $8, and the other
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

* If you could get 1,200 shares in Woods and 1,200 shares in Mickelson, your profit would be: $7,200;

* Actual expected profit: $2,400.

Explanation:

*<u> If you could get 1,200 shares in Woods and 1,200 shares in Mickelson, what would your profit be?</u>

The total profit would be equals to the sum of positive payoff and negative payoff in which:

Positive payoff = Undervalued per share * 1,2000 shares bought = 8 * 1,200 = $9,600.

Negative payoff = Overvalued per share * 1,2000 shares bought = (2) * 1,200 = $(2,400)

=> Total profit = $9,600 - $2,400 = $7,200.

*  <u>What profit do you actually expect:</u>

As for positive payoff stock purchasing, we can only get half of the stock which is 600 stocks, the profit will be again equals to the sum of positive payoff and negative payoff in which:

Positive payoff = Undervalued per share * 600 shares bought = 8 * 600 = $4,800.

Negative payoff = Overvalued per share * 1,2000 shares bought = (2) * 1,200 = $(2,400)

=> Total profit = $4,800 - $2,400 = $2,400.

4 0
4 years ago
A company reports on the cash basis. During the company's first year of business, it had sales on account of $1,000,000, invento
grandymaker [24]

Based on the information given the company's cash-basis income for its first year of operations is $350,000.

First step

Net sales revenues =Sales - Account receivable

Net sales revenues= $1,000,000 - $100,000

Net sales revenues = $900,000

Second step

Net expenditure on purchases =Inventory purchases - Account payable

Net expenditure on purchases =$400,000 - $50,000

Net expenditure on purchases = $350,000

Third step

Cash-basis income =Net sales revenues - Net purchases expenditure - Other expenses

Cash-basis income= $900,000 - $350,000 - $200,000

Cash-basis income= $350,000

Inconclusion  the company's cash-basis income for its first year of operations is $350,000.

Learn more about cash-basis income  here:brainly.com/question/25817056

8 0
2 years ago
What is allowable self-employment plan contributions.
matrenka [14]
<h3><em>Answer:</em></h3><h3><em>Answer:For a self-employed individual, contributions are limited to 25% of your net earnings from self-employment (not including contributions for yourself), up to $61,000 for 2022 ($58,000 for 2021; $57,000 for 2020). You can calculate your plan contributions using the tables and worksheets in Publication 560</em></h3>
4 0
3 years ago
Question 7 of 10
Stels [109]
It’s B. Your pay check
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In year 1, Heron Corp. has depreciation expense for income statement purposes of $10,000. The depreciation deduction on the tax
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

The correct options are as follows:

c. debit tax expense of $24,000.

d. credit taxes payable of $22,800.

e. credit deferred tax liability of $1,200.

Explanation:

In the question, we are given the following:

Enacted tax rate = 30%

Pretax income for the year = $80,000

Taxable income = $76,000

The following can now be calculated:

Tax expense = Pretax income for the year * Enacted tax rate = $80,000 * 30% = $24,000

Tax payable = Taxable income * Enacted tax rate = $76,000 * 30% = $22,800

Excess of Tax expense over Tax payable = Tax expense - Tax payable = $24,000 - $22,800 = $1,200

The above will then be recorded as follows:

Debit tax expense of $24,000.

Credit taxes payable of $22,800.

Credit deferred tax liability of $1,200.

Therefore, the correct options are as follows:

c. debit tax expense of $24,000.

d. credit taxes payable of $22,800.

e. credit deferred tax liability of $1,200.

7 0
3 years ago
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