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Delvig [45]
3 years ago
13

When an intercompany inventory profit resulting from a sale by a less than 100% owned subsidiary to its parent is eliminated, th

e full amount (100%) of the decrease in profit is deducted from consolidated net income available to the parent shareholders.
Business
1 answer:
joja [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

It is true that when an intercompany inventory profit resulting from a sale by a less than 100% owned subsidiary to its parent is eliminated, the full amount (100%) of the decrease in profit is deducted from consolidated net income available to the parent shareholders.

Unrealized profits are the profit element not earned because they were not sold to third parties, it was basically a transfer between one company in a group (for example subsidiary) and another company in the same group (for example to the parent company).  

At the year-end, if the goods are still in inventory, any profit thereon cannot be recognized but eliminated. Therefore for consolidation purposes, this unrealized profit element is taken out of inventory value in order to reduce the inventory value back down to the lower of cost or net realizable value.  

This is done by crediting the inventory amount and debiting consolidated retained earnings.

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The interest on the projected benefit obligation component of pension expense:__
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

Option b (reflects..................settled) is the right response.

Explanation:

  • The estimated beneficiary obligation was indeed unwounded by that of the identification of inflation rates through an investment that raises something both PBO reserve as well as the retirement expenditure between each duration.
  • The premium on either the expected advantage commitment portion including its pension cost illustrates the amounts beyond which the pension contributions will indeed be reasonably negotiated.

Any other option is not connected to that case. That's the right choice.

4 0
2 years ago
g Your financial advisor offers you two different investment options. Plan A offers a $17,000 annual payment, in perpetuity. Pla
motikmotik

Answer:

4.76%

Explanation:

The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.

PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate

PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r

PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r

PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

multiply boths side by r

17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18

divide both sides by 30000

17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18

0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18

by rearraging the equation we have the below

(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667

(1+r)^-18=0.433333333

divide indices on both sides by -18

1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)

1+r=1.047554315

r=1.047554315-1

r=4.76%

5 0
3 years ago
True or false: The SEC has delegated the primary responsibility for setting accounting standards to the AICPA.
denis23 [38]

Does the SEC have the power to set accounting standards. The SEC has delegated the primary responsibility for setting accounting standards to the AICPA is a False statement.

<h3>What is the SEC position in the financial reporting process?</h3>
  • The  SEC position is known to be a Commission that has been empowered with the authority under the securities laws of the United States.

They are empowered  to set accounting standards to be followed by all public firms and they are known to also have the power to make sure that those standards are followed.

Conclusively, The SEC delegated accounting standard setting is said to be to FASB.

Learn more about SEC  from

brainly.com/question/8002159

6 0
3 years ago
Inc.'s capital structure features 40 percent equity, 60 percent debt, and that its before-tax cost of debt is 9 percent, while i
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

WACC = ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)

WACC = 15(0.40) + 9(0.60)

WACC = 6 + 5.4

WACC = 11.4%

Explanation:

WACC is a function of cost of equity multiplied by the proportion of equity in the capital structure plus cost of debt multiplied by the proportion of debt in the capital structure. The proportion of equity in the capital is expressed as E/V (0.40) while the proportion of debt in the capital structure is expressed as D/V (0.60).

3 0
3 years ago
A company purchased land for $100,000 cash. Accrued real estate taxes on the land, $2,000, and real estate taxes on the land for
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

$118,000

Explanation:

We know the purchase price of land = $100,000

Also any kind of brokerage or commission is added to such cost as it is part of acquisition and one time expense, thus capital in nature.

Thus, $8,000 paid as brokerage will be added.

Also the one time expense in the capital nature being the demolishing expense will be added to cost.

Thus, net cost of land = $100,000 + $8,000 + $10,000 = $118,000

Some of the salvage sold results in an income for the company, and that shall form part of income statement, and has nothing to do with cost of land.

Thus, net historical cost = $118,000

7 0
3 years ago
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