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Delvig [45]
3 years ago
13

When an intercompany inventory profit resulting from a sale by a less than 100% owned subsidiary to its parent is eliminated, th

e full amount (100%) of the decrease in profit is deducted from consolidated net income available to the parent shareholders.
Business
1 answer:
joja [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

It is true that when an intercompany inventory profit resulting from a sale by a less than 100% owned subsidiary to its parent is eliminated, the full amount (100%) of the decrease in profit is deducted from consolidated net income available to the parent shareholders.

Unrealized profits are the profit element not earned because they were not sold to third parties, it was basically a transfer between one company in a group (for example subsidiary) and another company in the same group (for example to the parent company).  

At the year-end, if the goods are still in inventory, any profit thereon cannot be recognized but eliminated. Therefore for consolidation purposes, this unrealized profit element is taken out of inventory value in order to reduce the inventory value back down to the lower of cost or net realizable value.  

This is done by crediting the inventory amount and debiting consolidated retained earnings.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
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LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

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3 0
3 years ago
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natulia [17]

Answer:

d. $75,000

Explanation:

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5 0
4 years ago
In the year 2020, a divorced woman under age 50 collects $50,000 of alimony and child support as her sole source of income. The
NikAS [45]

The available options are:

A. No contribution can be made because the woman does not have earned income

B. A contribution of up to $6,000 is permitted, but the contribution is not tax deductible.

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D. A tax deductible contribution of up to $9,000 is permitted

Answer:

No contribution can be made because the woman does not have earned income

Explanation:

Unlike in the previous years before 2019, concerning divorce agreements, alimony is now declared to be no longer deductible by the payor and at the same time is considered to be a tax-free income to the recipient. In essence, this indicates that alimony is no longer qualifies as earned income and therefore, cannot be utilized to fund an Individual Retirement Account.

Hence, in this case, since it is , year 2020, the correct answer is "No contribution can be made because the woman does not have earned income."

8 0
3 years ago
Ben, a 44-year-old middle manager at a well-known advertising firm, just lost his job. The company downsized due to a significan
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

a

Explanation:

because they went with someone less qualified

4 0
3 years ago
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