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Ivanshal [37]
3 years ago
11

Why should campaigns with different marketing objectives be separated into different Performance Planner plans?

Business
1 answer:
Minchanka [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

•To prevent budget from limiting campaign.

•So that there won't be reallocation of spend within two separate marketing objective.

•So that there won't be duplicating of any potential keywords between different marketing objectives.

•To identity better seasons trends for individuals.

You might be interested in
If the total assets of a business are $107,000 and its liabilities are $75,000, which of the following statements is correct?
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

a. liabilities are $32,000

Explanation:

Note: In question part $75,000 shall represent equity, as there are only 3 parts of balance sheet assets, equity and liabilities, if assets are given liabilities is what we need to calculate the missing is equity.

Thus, $75,000 is treated as equity.

In that case we have,

Assets = Equity + Liabilities

$107,000 = $75,000 + Liabilities

Assets - Equity = Liabilities

$107,000 - $75,000 = Liabilities

$32,000 = Liabilities

Therefore, correct option is

a. liabilities are $32,000

7 0
3 years ago
Starset, Inc., has a target debt-equity ratio of 1.15. Its WACC is 8.6 percent, and the tax rate is 21 percent.
aev [14]

Answer:

a. 4.94%

b. 11.48%

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the pretax cost of debt and cost of equity.

We proceed as follows;

a. From the question;

The debt equity ratio = 1.15

since Equity = 1 ; Then

Total debt + Total equity = 1 + 1.15 = 2.15

Mathematically ;

WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Pretax Cost of debt x Weight of debt x (1-Tax rate)

Where WACC = 8.6%

Cost of equity = 14%

Weight of equity = 1/(total debt + total equity) = 1/(1+1.15) = 1/2.15

Pretax cost of debt = ?

Weight of debt = debt equity ratio/total cost of debt = 1.15/2.15

Tax rate = 21% = 0.21

Substituting these values, we have;

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

Pretax cost debt = (8.6%-6.511628%)/(1.15/2.15 x (1-21%))

Pretax cost of debt = 4.94%

b. WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + After tax Cost of debt x Weight of debt

8.6% = Cost of equity x 1/2.15 + 6.1% x 1.15/2.15

Cost of equity = (8.6%-3.26279%)/(1/2.15)

Cost of equity = 11.48%

6 0
3 years ago
Cindy Medavoy will invest $7,990 a year for 19 years in a fund that will earn 10% annual interest. Click here to view factor tab
Rudik [331]

Answer:

The correct answer for future value if first payment occur today is $449,645.24 and if first payment occur at the end of year is $408,761.13.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Payment (pmt) = $7,990

Rate of interest (r) = 10%

Time (n) = 19 years

So, we can calculate the future value by using following formula:

Future Value ( if payment occurs today) :

FV = Pmt  (((1+r)^n   - 1) ÷ r) x (1+r)

By putting the value:

= $7,990 ((( 1+ 0.10)^19   -1) ÷ .10) × ( 1 + 0.10)

= $7,990 ( 51.16) × ( 1.10)

= $449,645.24

Future Value ( if payment occurs at the end of year):

FV = Pmt x ((1+r)^n   -1)) ÷ r)

= $7,990 ((1 + 0.10)^19  -1) ÷ 0.10)

= $7,990 × 51.16

= $408,761.13

4 0
3 years ago
You need $20,000 to purchase a used car. Your wealthy uncle is willing to lend you the money as an amortized loan. He would like
Serga [27]

Answer:

The annualy payment for theamortized loan is $6,802.44

Explanation:

First we will find the total loan payment TP for the $20,000 borrowed over the next four years with a annual return of 8%:

TP = $20,000 *(1+8%)^4

TP = $20,000 *(1.08)^4

TP = $20,000 *1.3605 = $27,209.7

The annual payments AN is obtained by dividing the TP into the 4 years:

AN  = $27,209.7 / 4 = $6,802.44

4 0
3 years ago
"Slumming" meant:
Andru [333]

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

The word 'slumming' can be defined as an act of going to socially low-level area and spending time there either with the purpose to do charity or just out of curiosity.

Harlem is a city located in the neighbourhood of New York City after blacks migrated to the place the city became a restricted area to go.

But in the early 1920s, the whites began slumming to Harlem. They left their sophisticated ways to get a share of black life. They packed themselves in speakeasies, dancehalls, jazz clubs, etc.

So, the correct answer is option A.

8 0
3 years ago
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