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a_sh-v [17]
3 years ago
6

(π/6)*[√4] + (3!)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3) i dont know this it is confusing HELP!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Daniel [21]3 years ago
7 0
The answer is one
the reason is because
<span>(π/6)*[√4] + (3!)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3) is one</span>
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]3 years ago
7 0
Special things are confusing

so

some basica rules
x^ \frac{m}{n}= \sqrt[n]{x^m}
and pemdas


so
parentahsees first
3!=3*2*1=6
now we have
(π/6)*[√4] + (6)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3)
exponents
6^2=36
<span>(46,656)^(1/3)=∛46656=36

now we have</span>
(π/6)*[√4] + 36-36
multiply
(π/6)*[√4]=\frac{pi \sqrt{4} }{6} = \frac{2pi}{6}= \frac{pi}{3}

now we have
\frac{pi}{3}+36-36
\frac{pi}{3}+0
\frac{pi}{3}

the simplified expression is \frac{pi}{3}
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