All categories

3 years ago

How to solve −11=n−5 divided by 6

Mathematics

2 answers:

valina [46]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

First you would add 5 to the other side and you would get n=-6 because since 11 is negative you would really subtract it. And then you would divide -6 by 6 and get -1

Annette [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

N is -6 and -6/6 is -1

Step-by-step explanation:

You should know it now

You might be interested in

Solve with elimination , please help.

Svetlanka [38]

This is the answer the x=3 and the y=2

7 0

4 years ago

In a recent 10-year period, the change in the number of visitors in the U.S. National parks was about -11,150,000. What was the

Trava [24]

Answer:

Mean = -1,115,000 per year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean = (Σx)/N

The mean is the sum of variables divided by the number of variables

Σx = sum of variable = change in number of visitors over a 10 year period = -11150000

N = number of variables = 10

Mean = (-11150000)/10

Mean = -1,115,000 per year.

Hope this Helps!!!

4 0

3 years ago

A leading bank is coming up with an investment that pays 8 percent interest compounded semiannually. What is the investment's ef

uranmaximum [27]

The effective rate is calculated in the following way:
$r = {(1 + \frac{i}{n} )}^{n} - 1$
where r is the effective annual rate, i the interest rate, and n the number of compounding periods per year (for example, 12 for monthly compounding).
our compounding period is 2 since the bank pays us semiannually(two times per year) and our interest rate is 8%
so lets plug in numbers:
$r = {(1 + \frac{8\%}{2}) }^{2} - 1 \\ r = {(1 + \frac{1}{25}) }^{2} - 1 \\ r = \frac{676}{625} - 1 \\ r = 0.0816 \: or \: 8.16\%$

5 0

3 years ago

Which of the following expressions shows the distributive property applied to the expression below?

BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

C. (z×6)+(z×35)

.....

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has

RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) = 0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE the Bivariate Table;

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3) probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% = 0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0

3 years ago