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rusak2 [61]
3 years ago
12

Susie Smith signed a note agreeing to pay "Annie Greene, Mary Hodge" $1,000. The payment was for painting her house. An issue wi

th the note was that it spelled Annie's last name "Greene," whereas Annie spells it simply "Green." Annie and Mary had a disagreement regarding how to split up the funds for painting the house. Annie proceeded to sign the note on the back "Annie Green" and presented it to Bill Brown to satisfy a debt that she owed him. Bill Brown endorsed the note on the back and took it to the bank for payment. Mary is unhappy because she did not obtain any of the funds and stated that Annie could not legally endorse the instrument because it misspelled her name and because Mary did not sign it. Which of the following is true regarding Mary's claim that the endorsement by Annie was illegal because the note misspelled Annie's name?
A) He is not a holder in due course because he did not provide value.B) He is not a holder because he did not provide value.C) He is not a holder nor is he a holder in due course because he did not provide value.D) The fact that a gift was involved does not prevent Sam from being a holder in due course so long as other requirements are satisfied.E) The fact that a gift was involved does not prevent Sam from being a holder in due course so long as other requirements are satisfied and Sam is not a minor.
Business
1 answer:
r-ruslan [8.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

All the options are wrong, they seem to be from another question.

But the correct answer to this question is that Mary is wrong, Annie can legally endorse the note even if her last name was misspelled. Since the misspell was a minor error, only an extra letter (Green vs. Greene), she can do it without any problem because it's easy to prove she is the same person.

You might be interested in
Punitive damages: a. are a small amount of compensation given to the plaintiff. b. are like actual damages but do not seek to de
lukranit [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": are damages in excess of the plaintiff's injuries, awarded to punish the defendant.

Explanation:

Punitive Damages are penalties passed to the defendant of court cases on top of compensations they must pay to plaintiffs because of the faults they committed. The punitive damage is not provided to the plaintiffs but is imposed to punish defendants when their faults are negligent and should not be repeated.  

Thus, <em>punish damages are imposed in an attempt to avoid other individuals to commit the same gross faults.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
Your company has earnings per share of $ 4.19. It has 1.9 million shares​ outstanding, each of which has a price of $59. You are
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

If the current earnings per share of TargetCo. are $2.10, and the times earnings multiple is 12, the relative valuation should result in a $2.10 x 12 = $25.20 per stock. This means that the premium per stock = $25.20 - $21 = $4.20, and the total premium paid for all the 1.9 million shares = $7.98 million.

8 0
3 years ago
Stanford Corporation has four categories of overhead. The expected overhead costs for each category for next year are as follows
aliina [53]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

a)

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

<u></u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 2,325,000 / 20,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $116.25 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH=  116.25*375

Allocated MOH= $43,493.75

<u>b)</u>

Total cost= 5,000 + 7,500 + 43,493.75

Total cost= $55,993.75

<u>c)</u>

Selling price= 55,993.75*1.3

Selling price= $72,791.88

<u>d)</u>

<u>First, we need to calculate the activities rate:</u>

<u></u>

Maintenance= 210,000 / 10,000= $21 per machine hour

Materials handling= 90,000 / 2,000= $45 per material move

Setups= 75,000 / 100= $750 per setup

Inspection= 150,000 / 4,000= $37.5 per inspection

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Maintenance= 21*150= 3,150

Materials handling= 45*4= 180

Setups= 750*2= 1,500

Inspection= 37.5*3= 112.5

Total allocated costs= $4,942.5

8 0
2 years ago
Suppose you have been hired as a financial consultant to Defense Electronics, Inc. (DEI), a large, publicly traded firm that is
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

Initial Cash Flow at Time 0 = -(Appraised Value of Land + Cost of Building Plant and Equipment + Net Working Capital)

Substituting values in the above formula, we get,

Initial Cash Flow at Time 0 = -(6,000,000 + 32,600,000 + 1,475,000) = -$40,075,000 (answer for Part a)

_____

Part b)

Step 1: Calculate Weights of Different Sources of Finance

Market Value of Debt = Number of Bonds*Par Value*Current Selling Price Percentage = 245,000*1,000*105% = $257,250,000

Market Value of Common Stock = Number of Shares*Current Selling Price = 9,500,000*73.10 = $694,450,000

Market Value of Preferred Stock = Number of Shares*Current Selling Price = 465,000*83 = $38,595,000

Total Market Value of Firm = Market Value of Debt + Market Value of Common Stock + Market Value of Preferred Stock = 257,250,000 + 694,450,000 + 38,595,000 = $990,295,000

Now, we can calculate weights as follows:

Weight of Debt = Market Value of Debt/Total Market Value of Firm = 257,250,000/990,295,000

Weight of Equity = Market Value of Equity/Total Market Value of Firm = 694,450,000/990,295,000

Weight of Preferred Stock = Market Value of Preferred Stock/Total Market Value of Firm = 38,595,000/990,295,000

_____

Step 2: Calculate After-Tax Cost of Debt

The after-tax cost of debt can be calculated with the use of Rate function/formula of EXCEL/Financial Calculator. The function/formula for Rate is Rate(Nper,PMT,-PV,FV) where Nper = Period, PMT = Payment (here, Coupon Payment), PV = Present Value (here, Current Selling Price) and FV = Future Value (here, Face Value of Bonds).

Here, Nper = 23*2 = 46, PMT = 1,000*6%*1/2 = $30, PV = 1,000*105% = $1,050 and FV = $1,000

Using these values in the above function/formula for Rate, we get,

Pre-Tax Cost of Debt = Rate(46,30,-1050,1000)*2 = 5.61%

After-Tax Cost of Debt = Pre-Tax Cost of Debt*(1-Tax Rate) = 5.61%*(1-22%) = 4.38%

______

Step 3: Calculate Cost of Preferred Stock

The cost of preferred stock is determined as below:

Cost of Preferred Stock = Annual Dividend/Current Stock Price*100 = (3.8%*100)/83*100 = 4.58%

______

Step 4: Calculate Cost of Equity

The cost of equity is arrived as below:

Cost of Equity = Risk Free Rate + Beta*(Market Risk Premium) = 2.9% + 1.2*(6%) = 10.10%

Calculate Discount Rate

The value of discount rate is calculated as follows:

Discount Rate = (Weight of Debt*After-Tax Cost of Debt + Weight of Preferred Stock*Cost of Preferred Stock + Weight of Equity*Cost of Equity) + Appropriate Risk Adjustment Factor

Substituting values in the above formula, we get,

Discount Rate = (257,250,000/990,295,000*4.38% + 38,595,000/990,295,000*4.58% + 694, 450,000/990,295,000*10.10%) + 1.5% = 9.90% (answer for Part b)

The after-tax salvage value of the plant is arrived as below:

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Plant and Equipment/Useful Life = 32,600,000/8 = $4,075,000

Book Value of Plant and Equipment After 5 Years = Cost of Plant and Equipment - Annual Depreciation*5 = 32,600,000 - 4,075,000*5 = $12,225,000

Loss on Sale of Plant and Equipment = Book Value of Plant and Equipment After 5 Years - Salvage Value = 12,225,000 - 5,200,000 = $7,025,000

After-Tax Salvage Value = Salvage Value + Loss on Sale of Plant and Equipment*Tax Rate = 5,200,000 + 7,025,000*22% = $6,745,500 (answer for Part c)

The annual operating cash flow (OCF) is determined as follows:

Sales Value (19,550*11,070) 216,418,500

Less Variable Costs (19,550*9,700) 189,635,000

Fixed Costs 7,500,000

Depreciation 4,075,000

EBT 15,208,500

Less Taxes 3,345,870

EAT 11,862,630

Add Depreciation 4,075,000

Operating Cash Flow $15,937,630

Answer for Part d) is $15,937,630.

The accounting break-even quantity is calculated as follows:

Accounting Break-Even Quantity = (Fixed Cost + Depreciation)/(Selling Price - Variable Cost)

Substituting values in the above formula, we get,

Accounting Break-Even Quantity = (7,500,000 + 4,075,000)/(11,070 - 9,700) = 8,449 units (answer for Part e)

IRR

IRR is the minimum rate of return acceptable from a project. It can be calculated with the use of IRR function/formula of EXCEL/Financial Calculator. The basic formula for calculating IRR is given below:

NPV = 0 = Cash Flow Year 0 + Cash Flow Year 1/(1+IRR)^1 + Cash Flow Year 2/(1+IRR)^2 + Cash Flow Year 3/(1+IRR)^3 + Cash Flow Year 4/(1+IRR)^4 + Cash Flow Year 5/(1+IRR)^5

IRR is calculated with the use of EXCEL as below:

Year Cash Flow 0 -40075000 15937630 15937630 15937630 15937630 30558130 33.16% 4 6 4 IRR 10

where

IRR = RR(B2:B7) = 33.16%

NPV

The NPV can be calculated with the use of following formula:

NPV = Cash Flow Year 0 + Cash Flow Year 1/(1+Discount Rate)^1 + Cash Flow Year 2/(1+Discount Rate)^2 + Cash Flow Year 3/(1+Discount Rate)^3 + Cash Flow Year 4/(1+Discount Rate)^4 + Cash Flow Year 5/(1+Discount Rate)^5

Substituting values in the above formula, we get,

NPV = -40,075,000 + 15,937,630/(1+9.90%)^1 + 15,937,630/(1+9.90%)^2 + 15,937,630/(1+9.90%)^3 + 15,937,630/(1+9.90%)^4 + (15,937,630 + 6,745,500 + 1,475,000 + 6,400,000)/(1+9.90%)^5 = $29,619,521.66

6 0
2 years ago
Melissa, a salesperson for a cosmetics company, is selling the company's new range of anti-acne products. While selling to prosp
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

Success story commitment technique

C

Explanation:

As a sales person, the primary reason for setting to work is to drive an increase in the sales made by the employer. Hence, sales persons are the ones directly involved and immersed in getting the company shore up its revenue through sales.

To achieve an increment in the sales made by a company, there are several techniques employed by the sales person in order to boost the sales of the products. One of such techniques is referred to as success story commitment technique.

How does this work?

A sales person seeking to apply the approach to a customer purchasing the goods brings out a story about how a person or customer that previously made a purchase had a problem that looks like the problem the present potential buyer is having. The convincing works by telling the potential buyer that the former buyer used the product to solve the problem or issue the present buyer is having and how it worked for him/her. The potential buyer may be convinced by this approach to then purchase the goods

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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