The equation below can be used to model the approximate cost of different numbers of carnival passes.

1 answer:

8 0

Slope-Intercept form is in the format of y=mx+b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. Therefore, we can rewrite the given equation dollarsas Cost=8p+10.

We can eliminate B and D because they mention that 10 is the slope, when the true slope is 8.

A.) is the correct answer because each pass is equal to 8 dollars (dollars is an assumed unit, it could be anything though).

:)

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$\bf \qquad \qquad \textit{Future Value of an ordinary annuity}\\
\left. \qquad \qquad \right.(\textit{payments at the end of the period})
\\\\
A=pymnt\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{r}{n} \right)^{nt}-1}{\frac{r}{n}} \right]$

$\bf \qquad 
\begin{cases}
A=
\begin{array}{llll}
\textit{accumulated amount}\\
\end{array}\to &
\begin{array}{llll}
8000
\end{array}\\
pymnt=\textit{periodic payments}\\
r=rate\to 5\%\to \frac{5}{100}\to &0.05\\
n=
\begin{array}{llll}
\textit{times it compounds per year}\\
\textit{monthly, thus twelve}
\end{array}\to &12\\
t=years\to &4
\end{cases}$

$\bf 8000=pymnt\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{0.05}{12} \right)^{12\cdot 4}-1}{\frac{0.05}{12}} \right]
\\\\\\
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\\\\\\
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