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sertanlavr [38]
4 years ago
10

Into how many regions do 35 parallel lines in a plane divide that planes.

Mathematics
2 answers:
liubo4ka [24]4 years ago
5 0
Your answer is 36 because You count the lines used and add one, which is your answer, 36
Murrr4er [49]4 years ago
4 0
I guess its A yes or no?

No because if 35 parallel lines in a plane and you can do 35÷_=_
And that all you need to fined
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(Please help I’m really struggling I will give brainliest too :-) for the figure shown on the right, find the value of the varia
bulgar [2K]

Answer:

x = 40

m∠Q = 105°

m∠R = 40°

m∠P = 35°

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of Angles in a Triangle: 180°

Step 1: Define variables

m∠Q = 2x + 25

m∠R = x

m∠P = x - 5

Step 2: Set up equation

m∠Q + m∠R + m∠P = 180°

2x + 25 + x + x - 5 = 180°

Step 3: Solve for <em>x</em>

4x + 20 = 180

4x = 160

x = 40

Step 4: Solve for measure angles.

m∠Q = 2x + 25

m∠Q = 2(40) + 25 = 80 + 25 = 105°

m∠R = x

m∠R = 40°

m∠P = x - 5

m∠P = 40 - 5 = 35°

6 0
3 years ago
Please help!! Giving brainliest and extra points!
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

radius of circle is 11 cm

6 0
3 years ago
Given the figure, what is the value of x? *
N76 [4]

Answer:

A

size berween c and a because the size

8 0
3 years ago
30 POINTS!
Luba_88 [7]

Answer: 5.5 seconds

Since the penny is dropped and not thrown, the initial velocity is 0 and the initial height is given as 150m. Plugging these into the given equation result in -4.9t^2+0t+150=-4.9t^2+150. To find how long it will take for the penny to hit the ground we set the equation equal to zero and solve for t. Since this doesn't factor, you'll need to use the quadratic formula:

+/-\frac{\sqrt{0^2-4(-49)(150)}}{2(-49)} =+/-\frac{10\sqrt{15} }{7}=+/-5.533. Since time cannot be negative, the answer will be the positive 5.5 seconds.

6 0
4 years ago
Please help me!!!!!!!!!
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

The slope of f(x) is -1 which means that it rises -1 for every time it goes over 1.  The slope of g(x) is 0, because it has a rise of 0 over an infinite run. The slope of g(x) is greater because 0>-1.

Step-by-step explanation:

You get the slope of the f(x) by doing 7-5/-4-(-2)= 2/-2=-1

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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