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kykrilka [37]
3 years ago
5

In the Shaping Department of Furs Industries the unit materials cost is $5.00 and the unitconversions cost is $3.00. The departm

ent transferred out 12,000 units and had 1,500units in ending work in process 20% complete. If all materials are added at thebeginning of the process, the total cost to be assigned to the ending work in process is
Business
1 answer:
swat323 years ago
8 0

Answer:

total value of ending WIP inventory:       8,400

Explanation:

unit material cost: 5.00 dollar

ending work in proces inventory

materials equivalent units:

1,500 x 100% = 1,500

as the mateirals are added entire at the beginning of the process:

material cost: 1,500 x 5 = 7,500

conversion

1,500 x 20% = 300

300 x 3.00 = 900

total value of ending WIP inventory:

materials 7,500

conversion 900

total        8,400

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In January of 2018, the Phillips Company purchased a patent at a cost of $100,000. In addition, $10,000 in legal fees were paid
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Answer:

The answer is: $113,000

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By 2020, Phillips Company had already amortized $22,000 of the patent expenses (2 years x [10% x ($100,000 + $10,000)]). Since it lost its patent defense in 2020, it will now have to write off $113,000 ($88,000 pending amortization + $25,000 in legal fees) for the adjustment of its 2018 income.

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Universal Laser, Inc., just paid a dividend of $3.10 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 6 p
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Ans. The current price of the stock is $56.82

Explanation:

Hi, well, the problem here is that we have different discount rates, in other words the required rate of return for the stock changes several times, therefore we are going to break this problem in 3 parts, or bring to present value all the cash flows in 3 steps. Let´s start with the value of the dividends.

We have to use the following formula.

Dn=D_{(n-1)} *(1+g)

Where, D(n-1) is last dividend and Dn is the dividend that we are looking for, for example, D1 = 3.10*(1+0.06)=3.29, D2=3.29*(1+0.06)=3.48, and so forth. The amount to pay on dividends per share is,

D1=3.29; D2=3.48; D3=3.69; D4=3.91; D5=4.15; D6=4.40; D(7)=4.66

Since the first 3 years are to be discounted at a 15%, this is how the formula should look like.

PV(1)=\frac{D1}{(1+r(1))^{1} } +\frac{D2}{(1+r(1))^{2} } +\frac{D3}{(1+r(1))^{3} }

PV(1)=\frac{3.29}{(1+0.15)^{1} } +\frac{3.48}{(1+0.15)^{2} } +\frac{3.69}{(1+0.15)^{3} }=7.92

Now, for the second part, we have to bring all cash flows to year 3 at r(2)=13% and then bring it to present value at r(1)=15%. This is because we have 2 different discount rates, this is as follows.

PV(2)=(\frac{D4}{(1+r(2))^{1} } +\frac{D5}{(1+r(2))^{2} } +\frac{D6}{(1+r(2))^{3} })*\frac{1}{((1+r(1)^{3} }

PV(2)=(\frac{3.91}{(1+0.13)^{1} } +\frac{4.15}{(1+0.13)^{2} } +\frac{4.40}{(1+0.13)^{3} })*\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } =6.42

Finally, we need to bring all the future cash flows from year 7 and beyond, notice that we need to use the return rate r(3) to bring everything to year 6, then we have to bring it to year 3 and then to present value, everything as follows.

PV(3)=(\frac{D7}{(r(3)-g)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(2))^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(1))^{3} } )

PV(3)=(\frac{4.66}{(0.11-0.06)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.13)^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } )=42.48

So, the price of the stock is PV(1) + PV(2) + PV(3), or:

Price=7.92+6.42+42.48=56.82

Price= $56.82/share

Best of luck.

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