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Kamila [148]
3 years ago
7

LO 4.5Why are the overhead costs first accumulated in the manufacturing overhead account instead of in the work in process inven

tory account?
Business
1 answer:
vivado [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer  Explanation:

For the manufacturing overhead occurs during the manufacturing process but unlike wages, the actual values are unknow thus, we cannot anticipate in a guarantee amount. Hence, the cost accounting works as follows:

It will stablish a predetermined overhead rate which will be charged against WIP based on another factor which can be measure (like working hours, machine hours, among others)

Then, during the period as the actual cost occurs they will be charged into manufacturing overhead account.

At the end of the period, we will be able to determinate the actual cost and adjust COGS, WIP and FINISHED GOOD if needed to represent the actual cost of the inventory produced.

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Which of the following represents a market failure?
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a. Shopping for used cars when the seller has private information about the car unavailable to the buyer

Explanation:

When the market is not able to produce an efficient quantity, then it is said that market is failed. This might happens due to many reasons and asymmetric information is one of them. When there is an asymmetric information, then the sellers of the used car have information about it, but the buyer do not have the full information about the used car.

Hence this leads to inefficient outcome and therefore market fails.

Hence it can be said that a market failure example is Shopping for used cars when the seller has private information about the car unavailable to the buyer.

Hence option first is the correct answer.

7 0
3 years ago
Moonlight Company sells $ 300 comma 000 of 9​%, 15​-year bonds for 67.0453 on April​ 1, 2018. The market rate of interest
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

Interest expense for the year: 33,590.33

Explanation:

face value $ 300,000

rate 9%

time 15 years

issued at   $  201, 136

discount:  $    98, 864

amortization per year under straight-line: the discount is equally distributed for each period

98,864 / 15 = 6,590.33

<u><em>interest expense per year:</em></u>

face value x rate + amortization:

300,000 x 0.09 + 6,590.33 = <em>33,590.33</em>

3 0
3 years ago
The pricing strategy that calls for a new product being priced high to make optimum profit while there is little competition is
dalvyx [7]

The pricing strategy that calls for a new product being priced high to make optimum profit while there is little competition is called as  Skimming price strategy

Skimming Pricing, also known as price skimming, is a pricing strategy that sets the price of new products higher and lowers them when competitors enter the market. Skimming prices are the opposite of penetration prices, which set lower prices for newly launched products in order to build a large customer base from the beginning.

Skimming pricing strategy refers to setting relatively high initial prices for new products or services for early adopters who are not price sensitive when there is a strong relationship between price and perceived quality. .. Prices can go down over time.

An example of a skimming strategy can be found primarily when major technology companies such as Apple, Samsung, and Sony are developing new technologies that are known to be in high demand.

Learn more about Skimming prices here:brainly.com/question/20927491

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following statements regarding the staffing budget is true? a.The staffing budget is based on the desired profit le
Valentin [98]

Answer:

b.The staffing budget is based on a fixed human resources budget

Explanation:

  • The staffing budget is the budget that outlines a money plan to be spent on the employees and consists of the largest investment to the organization.
  • It acts as an outline plan for the service companies each staff member corresponds to the salary for the employee in the spreadsheet on a weekly, monthly, and yearly basis.
8 0
2 years ago
At the end of the current year, Accounts Receivable has a balance of $2,150,000; Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a debit bal
disa [49]

Answer:

a. Allowance for doubtful accounts = Unadjusted balance + Adjusted balance

= $10,500 + $110,000

= $120,500

b. i)The adjusted balance of accounts receivable shall be $2,150,000(adjusted debit balance)

ii) Adjusted balance = Bad debt expense - Unadjusted balance

= $120,500 - $10,500

= $110,000 (Adjusted credit balance)

iii) Adjusted bad debt expense = Unadjusted balance of allowance for doubtful accounts + Adjusted balance allowance for doubtful accounts

= $10,500 + $110,000

= $120,500 (Adjusted debit balance)

c. Net realizable value = Gross accounts receivable - Allowance for doubtful accounts

= $2,150,000 - $110,000

= $2,040,000

3 0
3 years ago
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