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lara [203]
3 years ago
9

If a company uses the indirect method to report cash flows, where, if at all, would a decrease in accounts receivable be classif

ied on the statement of cash flows? A : financing activities section B : investing activities section C : operating activities section D : noncash activities
Business
1 answer:
Burka [1]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is C. operating activities section

Explanation:

Irrespective of whether it is direct method or indirect method, decrease or increase in accounts receivable will be in an operating activities section. Changes in working capital like inventory reflects in operating section.

Investing section contains the purchase and sale of long term asset or investment. And financing section is about repayment of debt and equity

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How do make a good business?
-Dominant- [34]

Answer: 1st to make a good business you have to start off small. For starters start doing a Lemonade Stand. If people like your Lemonade i'm sure they'll promote you by telling there friends. Then your business will get bigger and bigger until you have like a whole company.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The company that you are working for has a highly available architecture consisting of an elastic load balancer and several EC2
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

Memory Utilization of an EC2 instance

Explanation:

An EC2 instance is a server that is in terms of virtual in the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) to run the applications over the web services. It is a platform that should be cloud computing for permitting the subscribers of the business in order to run the programs related to the applications

Therefore according to the given situation, the custom metric that should be manually set up is utilization of the memory for EC2 instance

3 0
3 years ago
Kyle Corporation is comparing two different capital structures, an all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Under
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below

As we know that

1. EPS = ( Net income - dividends ) ÷ Average number of share

A.

For Plan 1

Number of share = 715,000

EPS = 1600000 ÷ 715000

= 2.23

For Plan 2

Net income = EBIT = $1.6 million = $1,600,000

Interest = 0.07*6,750,000 = 472,500

EBT = 1,127,500

Tax = 0

Net Income = 1,127,500  

Numberof share = 465,000  

So,

EPS = $1,127,500 ÷ 465000

= 2.42

B.

For Plan 1

EPS = 3100000 ÷ 715000

= 4.33

For Plan 2

When EBIT = 3,100,000

Interest = 0.07 × 6,750,000 = $472,500

Net Income = 2,627,500

So,

EPS = $2,627,500 ÷ 465000

= 5.65

C.

Plan 1 EBIT = Plan 2 EBIT  

EBIT ÷ 715000 = (EBIT - 0.07 × $6,750,000) ÷ 465000

EBIT = 1,351,350 or $1.35 million

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2019, Wintergreen, Inc., issued $150,000 of 7 percent, 10-year bonds at a price of 93.25. Wintergreen received $
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

June 30, 2020   Bond Interest expense      Debit        $5,756.25

                                     Discount on Bonds payable    Credit      $506.25

                                     Cash                                          Credit      $5,250

Explanation:

We have to calculate the interest expense. The bond interest expense = Cash payment + bond amortization discount

Given,

Bond price = $150,000

Interest = 7%

Number of period, n = 10 years × 2 (As it is a semiannual bond) = 20

Cash payment for semiannual interest = $150,000 × 0.07 × (1÷2)

Cash payment for semiannual interest = $5,250 (Credit)

Amortized bond discount (discount on bonds payable) = $10,125 ÷ 20 (as it is a semiannual payment and $10,125 is for 10 years)

Discount on bonds payable = $506.25 (Credit)

Therefore, bond interest expense = $5,250 + $506.25 = $5,756.25 (Debit)

6 0
3 years ago
As sales manager, Joe Batista was given the following static budget report for selling expenses in the Clothing Department of So
boyakko [2]

Answer:

Soria Company

Clothing Department

Selling Expense Flexible Budget Report for the month ended October 31, 2017: (Joe Batista)

                                    Budget     Actual      Variance      Comment

Sales in units              10,000      10,000        0                  Neither

Flexed Variable Expenses:

Sales Commission     $2,400     $2,400       0                  Neither

Advertising Exp.         $1,200        $900        $300           Favorable

Travel Expense          $4,000    $4,000        0                  Neither

Free Samples            $2,300     $1,300        $1,000          Favorable

Total Variable            $9,900    $8,600        $1,300          Favorable

Fixed Expenses:

Rent                           $1,700      $1,700         0                   Neither

Sales Salaries            $1,100      $1,100          0                   Neither

Office Salaries            $800        $800          0                  Neither

Depreciation               $400        $400          0                  Neither

Total Fixed               $4,000     $4,000          0                  Neither

Total  Expenses     $13,900    $12,600         $1,300          Favorable

Explanation:

a) Budgeted Variable Costs were flexed as follows:

i) Sales Commission = $1,872/7,800 x 10,000 = $2,400

ii) Advertising Expenses = $936/7,800 x 10,000 = $1,200

iii) Travel Expense = $3,120/7,800 x 10,000 = $4,000

iv) Free Samples = $1,794/7,800 x 10,000 = $2,300

b) The fixed costs could not be flexed as they remain invariable no matter the activity level.

c) Flexible budget is a budget that adjusts or flexes with changes in volume or activity.  It is a more accurate way of assessing performance because it is based on actual volume or activity level unlike a static budget, which remains unchanged.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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