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goldfiish [28.3K]
3 years ago
9

On January 1, 2017, Dawson, Incorporated, paid $100,000 for a 30% interest in Sacco Corporation. This investee had assets with a

book value of $550,000 and liabilities of $300,000. A patent held by Sacco having a book value of $10,000 was actually worth $40,000 with a six-year remaining life. Any goodwill associated with this acquisition is considered to have an indefinite life. During 2017, Sacco reported net income of $50,000 and paid dividends of $20,000 while in 2018 it reported net income of $75,000 and dividends of $30,000. Assume Dawson has the ability to significantly influence the operations of Sacco. The amount allocated to goodwill at January 1, 2017, is: Group of answer choices $10,000 $25,000 $16,000 $ 9,000 $13,000
Business
1 answer:
aalyn [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The amount allocated to goodwill at January 1, 2017, is: $16,000

Explanation:

We talk of goodwill when a company acquires another one and is the difference between the cost to purchase the business minus the fair market value of the tangible assets netted the liabilities.

In this case the fair value of the assets is:

Assets $550,000 + $40,000 - $10,000= $580,000

The book value of the assets is corrected with the fair value, in this case we correct the value of the patent.

Liabilities $300,000

porcentage acquired 30%

price paid $100,000

$100,000 - ((580,000-300,000)*30%) = $16,000

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icang [17]

In its most basic sense, Job satisfaction involves the positive feelings and evaluations individuals have about their employment.

<h3>What is Job satisfaction?</h3>

Job satisfaction serves as the joy and emotions that is positive that employee have about his work.

In this case, Job satisfaction involves the positive feelings and evaluations individuals have about their employment.

Learn more about Job satisfaction at:

brainly.com/question/10735969

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
"An insured has an $80,000 dwelling policy with a $500 deductible. In addition to the house, the property includes a detached ga
NeTakaya

Answer:

The amount that is needed to be covered by the policy is $3,500

Explanation:

Coverage B - Other kind of structures offer coverage for the real property which is to be located on the desired location and need to be separated from the dwelling through clear space.

Coverage A- upto 10%

So, in the situation, $8,000 is involved for other structures. Lightning is covered under the peril so that the policy will pay an amount of $3,500 (Which is $4,000 [$3,000 + $1,000] - $500)

5 0
3 years ago
Moody Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours. At the be
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Machine-hours required to support estimated production 157,000 Fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 658,000

Variable manufacturing overhead cost per machine hour $4.50

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (658,000/157,000) + 4.5

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $8.69 per machine hour

Job 400:

Direct materials= $350

Direct labor cost= $240

Machine-hours used= 31

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 8.69*31= $269.39

Job 400:

Units= 50

First, we need to calculate the total cost:

Total cost= 350 + 240 + 269.39

Total cost= $859.39

Unitary cost= 859.39/50= $17.188 per unit

7 0
3 years ago
A manufactured product has the following information for June. Standard Actual Direct materials (7 lbs. @ $9 per lb.) 60,000 lbs
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

price variance       12,000 U

quantity variance  4,500 U

Explanation:

(standard\:cost-actual\:cost) \times actual \: quantity= DM \: price \: variance

std cost  $9.00

actual cost  $9.20

quantity 60,000

These are givens so no calculation needed.

(9-9.20) \times 60,000= DM \: price \: variance

difference  $(0.20)

price variance  $(12,000.00)

The difference is negative, we purchase at a higher price, so the variance is unfavorable

(standard\:quantity-actual\:quantity) \times standard \: cost = DM \: quantity \: variance

std quantity        59500.00 (7 lbs per unit x 8,500 untis manufactured)

actual quantity 60000.00

std cost                         $9.00

(59,500-60,000) \times 9 = DM \: quantity \: variance

difference                       -500.00

efficiency variance  $(4,500.00)

The difference betwene standard lbs and the actual lbs used into production is negative, we use more lbs than standard. This variance is also unfavorable.

5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer has modeled its yearly production function P (the monetary value of its entire production in millions of dollars)
Vinvika [58]

Answer: P(120,30)= $1,218,365.5

So when the manufacturer invests $30 million in capital and 120,000 hours in labour yearly, the monetary value of production is about $1.2 million.

Explanation:

The Cobb-Douglas production function expresses the technological relationship between two inputs (labour and capital).

Since  

P(L,K)=1.47L^0.65 K^0.35 (equation 1)

we simply substitute L=120,000 and K=30,000,000 into equation 1.  

Thus, P(120,30)= 1.47(120,000)^0.65 (30,000,000)^0.35

<em>(Recall that L is in thousand of hours and K is in millions of dollars).</em>

P(120, 30)= 1.47(2002.02)(413.99)

Thus, P(120,30)= 1218365.475

P(120,30)= $1,218,365.5

P(120, 30)= $1.2 million

So when the manufacturer invests $30 million in capital and 120,000 hours in labour yearly, the monetary value of production is about $1.2 million

7 0
2 years ago
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