1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
JulijaS [17]
3 years ago
9

​First, compute cost of goods manufactured. Schedule of Cost of Goods Manufactured Beginning Work-in-Process Inventory 38000 Dir

ect Materials Used: Beginning Direct Materials 28000 Purchases of Direct Materials 70000 Direct Materials Available for Use 98000 Ending Direct Materials (33000) Direct Materials Used 65000 Direct Labor 80000 Manufacturing Overhead 38000 Total Manufacturing Costs Incurred during the Year 183000 Total Manufacturing Costs to Account For 145000 ▼ Cost of Goods Manufactured
Business
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Cost of manufactured period=  $221000

Explanation:

We need to calculate the production during the period.

Cost of manufactured period= Beginning work in progress inventory+ direct materials + direct labor + factory overhead - ending work in progress

Beginning work in progress= $38000

Cost of raw materials= beginning inventory + purchase - ending inventory= 28000 + 70000 - 33000= $65000

Direct labor= 80000

Manufactured overhead=38000

Ending work in progress= 0

Cost of manufactured period= 38000 + 65000 + 80000 + 38000= $221000

You might be interested in
Use the following information to answer questions 4a.1-4a.5 Gerrell Corp. is comparing two different capital structures. Plan I
maxonik [38]

Answer:

Gerrel Corp.

EPS (Earnings per share) = Earnings after Tax/Number of outstanding shares

Plan I:

EBIT =                    $90,000

Interest =                 $4,750 ($95,000 x 5%)

Pre-Tax Income = $85,250

Income Tax Exp.      34,100 ($85,250 x 40%)

After Tax Income  $51,150

EPS = $51,150/18,000 = $2.84 per share

Plan II:

EBIT =                    $90,000

Interest =                 $9,500 ($190,000 x 5%)

Pre-Tax Income = $80,500

Income Tax Exp.     32,200 ($80,500 x 40%)

After Tax Income  $48,300

EPS = $48,300/14,000 = $3.45 per share

Plan III:

EBIT =                    $90,000

Pre-Tax Income = $90,000

Income Tax Exp.     36,000 ($90,000 x 40%)

After Tax Income $54,000

EPS = $54,000/22,000 = $2.45 per share

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Plan I = 18,000 shares + $95,000 debt

Plan II = 14,000 shares + $190,000 debt

Difference = 4,000 shares + $95,000 debt

Share price = $95,000/4,000 = $23.75

EBIT = $90,000

Interest Rate = 5%

Corporate Tax Rate = 40%

b) Capital Structure:

Plan I: (Equity and Debt)

Shares of 18,000 x $23.75 + $95,000 debt = $522,500 in total capital

Plan II: (Equity and Debt)

Shares of 14,000 x $23.75 + $190,000 debt = $522,500 in total capital

Plan III: (All-equity plan):

Shares of 22,000 x $23.75 = $522,500 in total capital

c) The Earnings per share is the measurement of the Net Income to stockholders divided by the number of outstanding shares.  It gives an idea about the profitability of the entity, especially with regard to the profit made for common stockholders.  The EPS is also one of the metrics used in the calculation of the P/E ratio to indicate whether a company's shares are undervalued or overvalued.

5 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2017, Ball Company leased a machine from Cook for a 10-year period, expiring December 30, 2027. Annual payments
puteri [66]

Answer:

Explanation:

A capital lease is a lease arrangement in which the lessor agrees to transfer the ownership of an asset to the lessee at the completion of the lease period. During the leasing contract , the lease is treated like an asset in the company's balance sheet

Lease liability at inception =                             676,000

Annual payment  made on December 2017 =(100,000)

Balance lease liability on 2017                        = 576,000

Lease liability on December 2018

Balance on 2017                                                =576,000

Factor in 10% discount on lease payment

100,000 - (576,000*10%)= 100,000-57,600 =   (42,400)

Balance on lease liability =                                  533,600

The current liability portion =

Factoring in the 10% discount =

100,000 - (533,600*10%) = 100,000 - 53,360 =  46,640

7 0
3 years ago
Hardwig Inc. is considering whether to pursue a restricted or relaxed current asset investment policy. The firm's annual sales a
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

d. 2.24%

Explanation:

total annual sales = $3,600,000

fixed asset turnover = total sales / fixed assets = 4, that means that total fixed assets = $3,600,000 / 4 = $900,000

debt = 50% = $450,000

equity = 50% = $450,000

EBIT = $150,000

net income = $150,000 x (1 - 40%) = $90,000

restricted policy:

asset turnover = 2.5

sales = $3,600,000 x (1 - 15%) = $3,060,000

EBIT = $135,000

net income = $81,000

assets = $3,060,000 / 2.5 = $1,224,000

equity = $1,224,000 x 50% = $612,000

ROE = $81,000 / $612,000 = 13.24%

relaxed policy:

asset turnover = 2.2

EBIT = $150,000

net income = $90,000

assets = $3,600,000 / 2.2 = $1,636,364

equity = 50% x $1,636,364 = $818,182

ROE = $90,000 / $818,182 = 11%

difference between ROEs = 13.24% - 11% = 2.24%

8 0
3 years ago
What does George’s master decide to do? Make George do field work March George across the country Help George become a gentleman
prohojiy [21]

Based on the events in the book, we know that George's master made George do field work.

This is from the book, Uncle Tom's Cabin.

<h3>What happens in Uncle Tom's Cabin?</h3>

George's master did not believe that George should be engaging in doing much else apart from working for him as he was his enslaved person.

He would therefore follow George to whatever activity he would be doing that wasn't field work to drag him back to the house to engage in field work.

In conclusion, option A is correct.

Find out more on Uncle Tom's Cabin at brainly.com/question/1623971.

6 0
3 years ago
________ is the ability to raise prices above the level that perfect competition would produce by restricting the quantity suppl
katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

Market Power

Explanation:

Market Power is the ability of firms to raise price above the level of perfect competition price. Perfect Competition charge Price = Marginal Cost, Imperfectly, other imperfect markets charge price > MC.

This power is used by imperfect market structures - monopoly, oligopoly, monopolistic competition. They can use this power because -  they have control over market price, as they comprise a significant part of market supply. Eg : Monopolies usually use 'artificial scarcity' model to maintain a surplus in market & charge higher prices.

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • The actions an organization can and perhaps should take while an incident is in progress should be specified in a document calle
    13·1 answer
  • Anna Jonas owns a manufacturing firm in Indonesia and strongly believes that it is important that​ workers' rights be respected.
    9·1 answer
  • Would rocks make a good form of money? Explain why or why not?
    13·1 answer
  • Trudy’s monthly expenses are outlined in the chart below. Trudy’s job pays her $36,000 annually. Determine Trudy’s DTI (debt-to-
    13·2 answers
  • If the government removes a $4 tax on buyers of restaurant meals and imposes the same 4 tax on sellers of restaurant meals, then
    8·1 answer
  • which is the value of the work actually performed up to a specific point in time, is calculated by multiplying the TBC by the pe
    15·1 answer
  • When Proctor and Gamble removed potentially dangerous dyes and chemicals from its Tide detergent product and introduced Tide Fre
    15·1 answer
  • For contracts that include more than one separate performance obligation: Multiple Choice Revenue is recorded over time at the f
    5·1 answer
  • How do you define success?
    12·2 answers
  • Where should you look to find your current expenses
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!