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Tomtit [17]
2 years ago
5

In circle J with \text{m} \angle HLK= 30^{\circ}m∠HLK=30

Mathematics
1 answer:
olga2289 [7]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The minor arc HK is 60 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

see the attached figure to better understand the problem

we know that

The inscribed angle is half that of the arc it comprises.

so

m\angle HLK=\frac{1}{2}(arc\ HK)

we have

m\angle HLK=30^o

substitute the given value

30^o=\frac{1}{2}(arc\ HK)

arc\ HK=60^o

Remember that the measure of the minor arc must be less than 180 degrees

therefore

The minor arc HK is 60 degrees

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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

Its a 15% chance

Step-by-step explanation:

15% is the probability of the blue marble

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4a^2=9
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Read 2 more answers
Mei packed 783 strawberries equally into 9 cartons. After giving 4 cartons to her neighbor's , she decided to repack 5 strawberr
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Each carton contained:</u>

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