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jeka57 [31]
3 years ago
8

According to Montaigne, why is he writing his essays?

History
1 answer:
White raven [17]3 years ago
4 0

Michel de Motaigne had the intentions of becoming a politician, which was the primary motive of him writing the essays. He claimed that the intention of him writing the essay is to reflect "some traits of my character and of my humours." His writings are considered to be a pivotal version of skepticism and has also taken inspiration from ancient Greek, Latin and Italian texts. However sources claim that these essays are the brain children of deep introspection conducted by him.  

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What was Lincoln's constitutional justification for issuing the Emancipation Proclamation?
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 Wellness in Africa to win! Entries close: 15 April



Indo-Aryan migrations

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The Indo-Aryan migrations[note 1] were the migrations into the Indian subcontinent of Indo-Aryan peoples, an ethnolinguistic group that spoke Indo-Aryan languages, the predominant languages of today's North India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and the Maldives. Indo-Aryan population movements into the region and Anatolia (ancient Mitanni) from Central Asia are considered to have started after 2000 BCE, as a slow diffusion during the Late Harappan period, which led to a language shift in the northern Indian subcontinent. The Iranian languages were brought into the Iranian plateau by the Iranians, who were closely related to the Indo-Aryans.

The Proto-Indo-Iranian culture, which gave rise to the Indo-Aryans and Iranians, developed on the Central Asian steppes north of the Caspian Sea as the Sintashta culture (2200[2][3][4]–1800 BCE)[5][6][7][8] in present-day Russia and Kazakhstan, and developed further as the Andronovo culture (2000–900 BCE),[9] around the Aral Sea.

The Indo-Aryans split off around 2000 BCE to 1600 BCE from the Iranians,[10] and migrated southwards to the Bactria-Margiana Culture, from which they borrowed their distinctive religious beliefs and practices. From the BMAC, the Indo-Aryans migrated into Anatolia and, possibly in multiple waves, the Punjab (northern Pakistan and India), while the Iranians, starting ca. 800 BCE, moved into Iran, both bringing with them the Indo-Iranian languages.

Migration by an Indo-European people was first hypothesized in the late 18th century, following the discovery of the Indo-European language family, when similarities between western and Indian languages had been noted. Given these similarities, a single source or origin was proposed, which was diffused by migrations from some original homeland

Explanation:

am i right

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3 years ago
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