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Anarel [89]
3 years ago
7

A bank has $100 million in assets in the 0 percent risk weight category, $200 million in assets in the 20 percent risk weight ca

tegory, $500 million in assets in the 50 percent risk weight category and $750 million in assets in the 100 percent risk weight category. This bank has $57 million in core (Tier 1) capital. What is this bank's ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets
Business
1 answer:
andre [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

5.48% is the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets.

Firstly, we calculate the risk weighted asset for the bank

The risk weighted assets = The sum of the all the individual assets multiplied by the their percentage risk category

RWA = (100 * 0) + (200 * 0.2) + (500 * 0.5) + (750 * 1) = 0 + 40 + 250 + 750 = 1040

Now, the tier 1 capital to risk weighted ratio = 57/1040 = 0.0548 = 5.48%

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When people are led to think about their own _____, they are more attracted to a charismatic leader.
Naily [24]

When people are led to think about their own death they are more attracted to a charismatic leader.

The German sociologist Max Weber invented the idea of charismatic authority. It involves a kind of organisation or leadership where the leader's charisma confers authority. This contrasts with two other sorts of authority, namely traditional authority and legal authority. The three categories of authority that Max Weber identified are comprised of each of the three sorts.

The first time the word "charisma" came into use was in Saint Paul's writings to the fledgling Christian communities in the first century.

Learn more about Charismatic here

brainly.com/question/28099781

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
A month ago, you bought a one-year bond with a value of $100 that pays a fixed interest rate of 5 percent per year. The interest
My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

less desirable to other investors

Explanation:

<u>Given</u>: Current fixed coupon rate 5%

           Market rate of interest 5%

           New Market Rate of Interest 6%

Value of a bond is inversely related to economy interest rate or the yield to maturity (YTM). Value of a bond is expressed by the following equation:

B_{0}\ = \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{1} }  \ +\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{2} } \ +....+\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }\ +\ \frac{RV}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }

wherein, C = Coupon rate of interest

         YTM = Market Rate of Interest or interest rate in the economy or investor's expectation

                n= Years to maturity

             RV = Redemption value

In the given case, C = YTM i.e par value bond. When ytm rises to 6%, the value of the bond shall fall making such a bond less attractive since it represents lower coupon payments than investor expectations.

Thus, now the bond would be less desirable to other investors.

3 0
3 years ago
A person whose license has been cancelled or revoked, whether by voluntary action or by disciplinary action of the Board, may af
butalik [34]

Answer:

The appropriate fill-in-the-blank is 05 years. Thus the statement becomes

A person whose license has been cancelled or revoked, whether by voluntary action or by disciplinary action of the Board, may after <u>05</u> years from the effective date of such cancellation or revocation, petition the Board for reinstatement of the license, unless another time is provided in the cancellation or revocation order, or unless no provision was made in the order for reinstatement. This section does not apply to licensees who let their licenses lapse for non-payment of renewal fees or licensees against whom a cancellation or revocation proceeding is not pending before the Board or in any other jurisdiction.

Explanation:

According to the KRS 335.360, A person whose license has been revoked is eligible to apply for reinstatement after 05 years.

4 0
3 years ago
What are 3 ways to select an entire document
enyata [817]

Answer:

To select the entire document, you can use any of these

a. CTRL + A

b. Press Shift and highlight all the documents

c. Press SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
World Company expects to operate at 80% of its productive capacity of 66,250 units per month. At this planned level, the company
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

Overhead volume variance = $3,000 Unfavorable

Overhead controllable variance = $26,500 unfavorable

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

a)

Number of units produced = 80% × 66,250

= 53,000  units

Standard = 26,500 hours ÷ 53,000 units

= 0.5 direct labor hour per unit

Particulars                        a                 b               Direct labor hour(a ÷ b)

Variable overhead rate $331,250      26,500        $12.5 per hour

Fixed overhead rate       $53,000       26,500        $2 per hour

Total overhead rate      $384,250                          $15 per hour

The standard hours to produce 50,000 units = 25,000 (50,000 units × 0.50 hours per unit.)

Applied fixed overhead = $2 × 25,000

= $50,000

Overhead fixed volume variance is

= $53,000 - $50,000

= 3,000 unfavorable

Now

b) Standard hour = 50,000 units × 0.5 direct labor hour per unit

= 25,000

Overhead rate(a) Standard hours(b) Applied overhead(a × b) Actual variance

Variable overhead $12.5 25,000 $312,500

Fixed overhead $2 25,000 $50,000

Total overhead $14.5               25,000           $362,500       $389,000

= $362,500 - $389,000

$26,500 unfavorable

If the actual cost is more than the standard one than the variance should be unfavorable and If the actual cost is less than the standard one than the variance should be favorable

6 0
3 years ago
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