Or you can do the easy way
convert to slope intercept
y=mx+b
m=slope
get 1y all by itself
8x-4y=8
minus 8x both sides
-4y=-8x+8
divide both sides by -4
y=2x-2
y=mx+b
slope is 2
the hack way is
for an equatoin in standard form
ax+by=c
slope=-a/b
slope=2
if you want to graph 2 points and do it the long way, here it is
if x=0, y=-2
if y=0, x=1
(0,-2) and (1,0)
slope=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
slope=(0-(-2))/(1-0)=2/1=2
slope is 2
Answer:
(a) The exact value that is 33% of 2302 is 759.66.
(b) No, the result from part (a) could not be the actual number of adults who said that they play basketball.
(c) The actual number of adults who said that they play basketball is 760.
(d) 11.82% of respondents said that they only play hockey.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that a polling company reported that 33% of 2302 surveyed adults said that they play basketball.
(a) The exact value that is 33% of 2302 is given by;
= 
= 759.66
(b) No, the result from part (a) could not be the actual number of adults who said that they play basketball because the value in part (a) is in fractions or in decimals and the number of people can't be in fractions. It must be a whole number.
(c) The actual number of adults who said that they play basketball is 760. {As 759.66 rounded to one decimal point}
(d) It is given that among the 2302 respondents, 272 said that they only play hockey.
Percentage of respondents who said that they only play hockey is given by;
= 
= 11.82% ≈ 12%
Answer:
Looks like the scale factor is 1/3.
Step-by-step explanation:
<em>(In this dilation, the green image is polygon ABCDE, and the red image is polygon A'B'C'D'E'. The red image is the resulting image after said dilation.)</em>
A scale factor greater than one enlarges an image, and a scale factor between zero and one shrinks an image, so that rules out options 2 (SF = -3) and 3 (SF = 3).
A negative scale factor would end up in an image opposite the center of enlargement, so that eliminates option 4 (SF = -1/3).
So that means that the scale factor is option 1 (SF = 1/3)!
Answer: 2 times
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi, since 1000 milliliters = 1 liter
We have to convert the 2 liters into milliliters:
2 x 1000 = 2000 milliliters, so she is using a 2,000 milliliters pincher.
Now we have to multiply the number of friends (10) by the amount of lemonade she serves to each one (400 ml)
400 x 10 = 4,000 milliliters
Finally, we have to divide the amount of lemonade she needs to serve (4,000 ml) by the capacity of the pitcher (2,000), to obtain the number of times that she will need to fill the pitcher.
4,000/2,000=2 times
Feel free to ask for more if needed or if you did not understand something.
A Total of 6 Days!
Cheers:D
