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3 years ago

I WILL MARK YOU BRAINLYEST PLEASE HELP ME ASAP!!!! ( show your work please) But please hurry!!.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ahat [919]3 years ago

8 0

First we have to find the find the distance for single revolution.
Distance= 2πr
Put values
Distance= 2(3.14)(13)
Distance=81.64 inches in a single revolution.
Now in 30 revolution, distance= 30 x 81.64
Distance=2449.2 inches,

Answer: 2449.2 inch

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HElPPPPP NEED QUiCk whats the answer for 2+2=____ a.5 b.7 c.4 d.3

Fed [463]

Answer:

oh so easy 4 my answer is so easy

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A leprechaun places a magic penny under a girls pillow. The next night there are 2 magic pennies under her pillow. The following

kiruha [24]

Answer:

After 47 days she will have more than 90 trillion pennies.

Step-by-step explanation:

At the beginning there was 1 penny. At the second day the amount of pennies under the pillow became 2.

The amount of pennies doubled each day. So the series is,

$1,2,4,8,16,32,.....$

This series is in geometric progression.

As the pennies from each of the previous days are not being stored away until more pennies magically appear so the sum of series will be,

$S_n=\dfrac{a(r^n-1)}{r-1}$

where,

a = initial term = 1,

r = common ratio = 2,

As we have find the number of days that would elapse before she has a total of more than 90 trillion, so

$\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le \dfrac{1(2^n-1)}{2-1}$

$\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le \dfrac{2^n-1}{1}$

$\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le 2^n-1$

$\Rightarrow 2^n\ge 90\times 10^{12}+1$

$\Rightarrow \log 2^n\ge \log (90\times 10^{12}+1)$

$\Rightarrow n\times \log 2\ge \log (90\times 10^{12}+1)$

$\Rightarrow n \ge \dfrac{\log (90\times 10^{12}+1)}{\log 2}$

$\Rightarrow n \ge 46.4$

$\Rightarrow n\approx 47$

8 0

3 years ago

Divide. Write the quotient in lowest terms. 1/4 ÷ 1 1/8

natta225 [31]

Answer:2/11

Step-by-step explanation:

A fraction is in simplest form when the top and bottom cannot be any smaller

Firstly start by getting the common factors between 1 and 4 in 1/4 and 11 and 8 in 11/8. The common factor is 1 in 1/4 and 1 in 11/8. 1÷1/4÷1= 1/4. 11÷1/8÷1 = 11/8.

1/4÷ 11/8 =2/11.

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If C = 1+ p2 + 3p and B = 2p + 6p, find an expression that equals 2C – – B in

drek231 [11]

Answer:

2p² + 14p + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

C= 1+p²+3p

B=2p+6p

The expression that equals to : 2C - -B will be;

2{1+p²+3p} - {-2p-6p}

2+2p²+6p + 2p + 6p

2p² + 6p +2p +6p +2

2p² + 14p + 2

4 0

3 years ago

M−2 over 4 =5 over 20

Ne4ueva [31]

m=3
Plug it in and it should work
3-2 =1 over 4 which is the same as 5 over 20 because both as a percentage equal 25% or 1/4 or 0.25 if you put it in a calculator as calculators provide decimal answers

5 0

3 years ago