1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
lesantik [10]
3 years ago
5

Is odysseus good at creating peace after the trojan war? why or why not?

Social Studies
1 answer:
Mamont248 [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

no because he was not able to come back home for ten years and a lot of things were going on after he was able to leave

Explanation:

You might be interested in
In what way did the Mongol empire affect Russia and Persia similarly?
Paraphin [41]
D)the mongols established a central code of laws and policies
4 0
3 years ago
Spanish conquistadors were not concerned with Native American uses of peyote. Please select the best answer from the choices pro
Veseljchak [2.6K]

During the quest, it is true that the Spanish conquistadors were concerned with Native American uses of peyote

The term "Spanish conquistadors" is used to describes the group of Spanish men that conquer and subjugate the native populations in America.

  • Also, the peyote was a sacred medicine used as religious sacrament for many year before the Spanish conquer the Native American.

In conclusion, during the quest, it is true that the Spanish conquistadors were concerned with Native American uses of peyote

Read more about peyote:

<em>brainly.com/question/10683382</em>

4 0
2 years ago
Cuba has a leader. The citizens of Cuba have no rights. They cannot travel to other countries. They are assigned jobs by the gov
pogonyaev

Answer:

es una dictadura

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
In what direction does the easterlies blow?
Aliun [14]
Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the east.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help
arlik [135]
The best and most correct answer among the choices provided by your question is the second choice or letter B. "a logical fallacy."

In philosophy, a formal fallacy<span> (also called deductive </span>fallacy<span>) is a pattern of reasoning rendered invalid by a flaw in its </span>logical<span> structure that can neatly be expressed in a standard </span>logic<span> system, for example, propositional </span>logic<span>. An argument that is formally </span>fallacious<span> is always considered wrong.</span>


I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • In an effort to control a total institution, and to create a community of sameness, inmates are forced to strip down, be searche
    6·1 answer
  • Why shouldn’t use a scale map to measure a wo why shouldn’t use a scale map to measure Antarctica on a world map
    8·1 answer
  • In most states, the courts no longer grant "equitable" remedies. <br> a. True <br> b. False
    15·1 answer
  • After reading a first-person account of a fictional fellow student's experience of overcoming obstacles to vote, university stud
    11·1 answer
  • What are two ways that every place on the earth can be located?
    11·1 answer
  • How did the Japanese imperial court system of appointing government officials lead to the rise of the Fujiwara family?
    10·2 answers
  • What are differences between Piaget and Erikson's work?
    13·1 answer
  • What date did the Usa get the panama canal
    8·2 answers
  • Help help help please! (40 points)
    14·2 answers
  • Difference between national and foreign employment​
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!